Barron s How to Prepare for the TOEFL by Pamela Sharpe 11th edition - PDFCOFFEE.COM (2024)

HOW TO PREPARE FOR THE

TEST OF ENGLISH AS A l l T H EDITION Your Blueprint for Test Success Eight full-length model tests for the Computer-Based TOEFL One full-length model test for the Next Generation TOEFL Plus a model test for the TOEFL Academic Speaking Test (TAST) with example answers Explanations for all questions including sample essays and speaking responses

Your Private Tutor W Review chapters cover every section of the TOEFL Practice exercises help you learn when you don't have access to a computer Study tips and test-taking strategies

PC wmal Instruction for , a Bettw Test Scare A Orientation to the TOEFL Preview of the Next Generation TOEFL Speaking Practice Listening Comprehension ( on audio CDs English Structure Reading Comprehension Essay Writing Test Score Estimates Much more

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BTOEFL is a registered trademark af Educational Testing Service. This oublication has been neither reviewed nor pndorsed by h e Educational Testing Service.

To my former students at home and abroad

O Copyright 2004,2001, 1999, 1996, 1994,1989, 1986, 1983, 1979, 1977 by Barron's Educational Series, Inc.

All rights reserved. No part of this book may be reproduced in any form, by photostat, microfilm, xerography, or any other means, or incorporated into any information retrieval system, electronic or mechanical, without the written permission of the copyright owner.

All inquiries should be addressed to: Barron's Educational Series, Inc. 250 Wireless Boulevard Hauppauge, New York 11788

http:l/www.barronseduc.com Library of Congress Catalog Card No.: 2003070920 lnternational Standard Book No. 0-7641-2315-7 (book only) lnternational Standard Book No. 0-7641-7576-9 (book with compact disks) lnternational Standard Book No. 0-7641-7578-5 (book with CD-ROM) lnternational Standard Book No. 0-7641-7579-3 (cassettes only package) lnternational Standard Book No. 0-7641-7577-7 (compact disks only package) Library of Congress Cataloging-in-Publication Data

Sharpe, Pamela J. How to prepare for the TOEFL test : test of English as a foreign language / Pamela J. Sharpe. - 1l t h ed. p. cm. ISBN 0-7641-2315-7 (book only) - ISBN 0-7641-7576-9 (book with compact disks) - ISBN 0-7641-7578-5 (book with CD-ROM) 1. English language-Textbooks for foreign speakers. 2. Test of English as a Foreign Language-Study guides. 3. English language-Examinations-Study guides. I. Title.

PRINTED IN THE UNITED STATES OF AMERICA 9 8 7 6 5 4

To the Teacher vi Acknowledgments ix Permissions x Timetable for the TOEFL

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INTRODUCTION Study Plan for the TOEFL A Good Start 6 Advice for Success 6

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QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS CONCERNING THE TOEFL TOEFL Programs 11 Registration 15 Test Administration 18 Examination 20 Score Reports 23 The Next Generation TOEFL Updates 32

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REVIEW OF LISTENING Overview of the Listening Section 35 Directions and Examples for Listening Questions 37 Review of Problems and Questions for the Listening Section Computer Tutorial for the Listening Section 75 Preview of Listening on the Next Generation TOEFL 79 Advice for the Listening Section 79 Advice for Success 79

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PREVIEW OF SPEAKING Overview of the Speaking Section 83 Directions and Examples for Speaking Questions 83 Preview of Problems and Questions for the Speaking Section 88 Computer Tutorial for the Speaking Section 97 Advice for the Speaking Section 98 Advice for Success 98

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REVIEW OF STRUCTURE Overview of the Structure Section 101 Directions and Examples for Structure Questions 102 Review of Problems and Questions for the Structure Section Computer Tutorial for the Structure Section 199 Preview of Structure on the Next Generation TOEFL 201 Advice for the Structure Section 202 Advice for Success 203

105

REVIEW OF READING Overview of the Reading Section 207 Directions and Examples for Reading Questions 208 Review of Problems and Questions for the Reading Section Computer Tutorial for the Reading Section 234 Preview of Reading on the Next Generation TOEFL 238 Advice for the Reading Section 238 Advice for Success 238

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REVIEW OF WRITING Overview of the Writing Section 241 Directions and Examples for Writing Questions 242 Review of Strategies and Topics for the Writing Section 250 Computer Tutorial for the Writing Section 253 Preview of Writing on the Next Generation TOEFL 255 Advice for the Writing Section 255 Advice for Success 256

TOEFL MODEL TESTS How to Answer Questions for Model Tests 259 Model Test 1-Computer-Assisted TOEFL 263 Model Test 2-Computer-Assisted TOEFL 285 Model Test 3-Computer-Assisted TOEFL 309 Model Test 4-Computer-Assisted TOEFL 333 Model Test 5--Computer-Assisted TOEFL 357 Model Test 6-Computer-Assisted TOEFL 380 Model Test 7-Computer-Assisted TOEFL 404 Model Test 8-Computer-Assisted TOEFL 428 Model Test 9-Next Generation TOEFL 451

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ANSWER KEYS

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Answer Key-Exercises for Structure 483 Answer Key-Exercises for Reading 485 Answer Key-Model Tests 488

EXPLANATORY ANSWERS AND AUDIO SCRIPTS Model Test 1 --Computer-Assisted TOEFL 501 Model Test 2-Computer-Assisted TOEFL 521 Model Test 3--Computer-Assisted TQEFL 542 Model Test 4-Computer-Assisted TOEFL 561 Model Test 5-Computer-Assisted TOEFL 581 Model Test 6-Computer-Assisted TOEFL 600 Model Test 7-Computer-Assisted TOEFL 621 Model Test 8-Computer-Assisted TOEFL 641 Model Test 9-Next Generation TOEFL 662

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SCORE ESTIMATES 689

RESOURCES 697 Featured Colleges and Universities 699 Glossary of Campus Vocabulary 709 Index 736

vi

TO THE TEACHER

Rationale for a TOEFL Preparation Course Although Barron's How to Prepare for the TOEFL was originally written as a self-study guide for studknts who were preparing to take the TOEFL, in the years since its first publication, I have received letters from ESL teachers around the world who are using the book successfully for classroom study. In fact, in recent years, many special courses have been developed within the existing ESL curriculum to accommodate TOEFL preparation. 'I believe that these TOEFL preparation courses respond to three trends within the profession. First, there appears to be a greater recognition on the part of many ESL teachers that student goals must be acknowledged and addressed. For the engineer, the business person, the doctor, or the preuniversity student, a satisfactory score on the TOEFL is one of the most immediate goals; for many, without the required score, they cannot continue their professional studies or obtain certification to practice their professions, They may have other language goals as well, such as leaming to communicate more effectively or improving their writing, but these goals do not usually exert the same kinds of pressure that the required TOEFL score does. Second, teachers have recognized and recorded the damaging results of test anxiety. We have all observed students who were so frightened of failure that they have performed on the TOEFL at a level far below that which their performance in class would have indicated. The standardized score just didn't correspond with the score in the gradebook. In addition, teachers have become aware that for some students, the TOEFL represents their first experience in taking a computer-assisted test. The concepts of working within time limits, marking on a screen, and guessing to improve a score are often new and confusing to students, and they forfeit valuable points because they must concentrate on unfamiliar procedures instead of on language questions. Third, teachers have observed the corresponding changes in student proficiency that have accompanied the evolutionary changes in ESL syllabus design. Since this book was first written,

we have moved away from a grammatical syllabus to a communicative syllabus, and at this writing, there seems to be growing interest in a contentbased syllabus. Viewed in terms of what has actually happened in classrooms, most of us have emphasized the facilitation of communication and meaning and de-emphasized the teaching of forms. As we did so, we noticed with pride the improvement in student fluency and with dismay the corresponding loss of accuracy. Some of our best, most fluent students received disappointing scores on the test that was so important to them. Through these observations and experiences, teachers have concluded that (1) students need to work toward their own goals, (2) students need some time to focus on accuracy as well as on fluency, and (3) students need an opportunity to practice taking a standardized test in order to alleviate anxiety and develop test strategies. With the introduction of the Computer-Based TOEFL, the opportunity to gain experience taking a computerassisted model test has also become important to student confidence and success. In short, more and more teachers have begun to support the inclusion of a TOEFL preparation course in the ESL curriculum.

Organization of a TOEFL Preparation Course Organizing a TOEFL preparation course requires that teachers make decisions about the way that the course should be structured and the kinds of supplementary materials and activities that should be used.

Structuring Some teachers have suggested that each review section in this book be used for a separate class; they are team teaching a TOEFL course. Other teachers direct their students to the language laboratory for independent study in listening comprehension three times a week, checking on progress throughout the term; assign reading and vocabulary study for homework; and spend class time on structure and writing. Still other teachers develop individual study plans for each student based on previous TOEFL part scores. Students

TO THE TEACHER

with high listening and low reading scores concentrate their efforts in reading labs, while students with low listening and high reading scores spend time in listening labs.

Maferials and Activities Listening. Studies in distributive practice have convinced teachers of listening comprehension that a little practice every day for a few months is more valuable than a lot of practice concentrated in a shorter time. In addition, many teachers like to use two kinds of listening practice-intensive and extensive. Intensive practice consists of listening to problems like those in the review of listening in this book. By so doing, the student progresses from short conversations through longer conversations to mini-talks, gaining experience in listening to simulations of the TOEFL examination. Extensive practice consists of watching a daytime drama on television, listening to a local radio program, or auditing a class. Creative teachers everywhere have developed strategies for checking student progress such as requiring a summary of the plot or a prediction of what will happen the following day on the drama; a one-sentence explanation of the radio program, as well as the name of the speaker, sponsor of the program, and two details; a copy of student notes from the audited class. Speaking. One of the best ways to support students who are fearful of speaking is to address the issue of confidence. Developing a positive attitude toward the speaking tasks is a key to success on this section of the TOEFL. Another important strategy is to make 60-second telephone assignments. The TOEFL Academic Speaking Test (TAST), which is a preliminary version of the Speaking Section on the Next Generation TOEFL, is currently administered by telephone. To prepare our students for this new experience, some of us are experimenting with phonein speaking practice by using telephone answering machines to record our students when they call. In this way, the students can become accustomed to the telephone tasks and we can provide more realistic feedback for them. Structure. Of course, the focus in a review of structure for the TOEFL will be on form. It is form that is tested on the TOEFL. It is assumed that students have studied grammar prior to re-

vii

viewing for the TOEFL, and that they are relatively fluent. The purpose of a TOEFL review then is to improve accuracy. Because accuracy is directly related to TOEFL scores and because the scores are tied to student goals, this type of review motivates students to pay attention to detail that would not usually be of much interest to them. Among ESL teachers, the debate rages on about whether students should ever see errors in grammar. But many teachers have recognized the fact that stucfents do see errors all the time, not only in the distractors that are used on standardized tests like the TOEFL and teacher-made tests like the multiple-choice midterms in their grammar classes, but also in their own writing. They argue that students must be able to recognize errors, learn to read for them, and correct them. The student preparing for the TOEFL will be required not only to recognize correct answers but also to eliminate incorrect answers, or distractors, as possibilities. The review of structure in this book supports recognition by alerting students to avoid certain common distractors. Many excellent teachers take this one step further by using student compositions to create personal TOEFL tests. By underlining four words or phrases in selected sentences, one phrase of which contains an incorrect structure, teachers encourage students to reread their writing. It has proven to be a helpful transitional technique for students who need to learn how to edit their own compositions. Reading. One of the problems in a TOEFL preparation course is that of directing vocabulary study. Generally, teachers feel that encouraging students to collect words and develop their own word lists is the best solution to the problem of helping students who will be faced with the dilemma of responding to words from a possible vocabulary pool of thousands of words that may appear in context in the reading section. In this way, they will increase their vocabularies in an ordered and productive way, thereby benefiting even if none of their new words appears on the test that they take. Activities that support learning vocabulary in context are also helpful. In this edition, a Glossary of Campus Vocabulary supports comprehension of listening as well as of reading items that are, for the most part, campus based. In order to improve reading, students need extensive practice in reading a variety of material, including newspapers and magazines as well as

viii

TO THE TEACHER

short excerpts from textbooks. In addition, students need to check their comprehension and time themselves carefully. It is also necessary for students who are preparing for the Computer-Based TOEFL to practice reading from a computer screen. The skill of scrolling through text is different from the skill of reading a page in a book. To succeed on the TOEFL and after the TOEFL, students must develop new reading strategies for texts on screens. An English encyclopedia on CD-ROM is an inexpensive way to provide students with a huge amount of reading material from all the nonfiction content areas tested on the TOEFL. By reading on screen, students gain not only reading comprehension skills but also computer confidence. Again, it is well to advise students of the advantages of distributed practice. They should be made aware that it is better to read two passages every day for five days than to read ten passages in one lab period. Writing. There are many excellent ESL textbooks to help students improve their writing. Because TOEFL topics include opinion, persuasion, and argument, some teachers tend to emphasize these types of topics in composition classes. The extensive list of writing topics published in the Information Bulletin for the Computer-Based TOEFL and listed on the TOEFL web site offers teachers an opportunity to use actual TOEFL topics in class. In order to help students organize their thoughts, the topics can be used as conversation starters for class discussion. In this way, students will have thought about the topics and will have formed an opinion before they are presented with the writing task on the TOEFL. It is also a good idea to time some of the essays that students write in class so that they can become accustomed to completing their work within thirty minutes. Although teachers need to develop grading systems that make sense for their teaching situations, the scoring guide that is used for the essay

on the TOEFL is general enough to be adapted for at least some of the assignments in an ESL composition class. By using the guide, teachers can inform students of their progress as it relates to the scores that they can expect to receive on the essay they will write for the TOEFL.

Staying Current So many changes have been made in the design and content of the TOEFL over the years that one of the greatest challenges for teachers is to remain current and to help our students prepare for the format that they will see when they take the TOEFL. Now there are three TOEFL formats-the Paper-Based TOEFL, the ComputerBased TOEFL, and the Next Generation TOEFL--each of which requires slightly different preparation. In addition to the explanations and examples of each format that are provided in this book, the official TOEFL web site is a good resource for the most recent changes. Refer often to updates at www.toefl.org.

Networking with ESL Teachers One of the many rewards of writing is the opportunity that it creates to exchange ideas with so many talented colleagues. At conferences, I have met ESL teachers who use or have used one of the previous editions of this book; through my publisher, I have received letters from students and teachers from fifty-two nations. This preface and many of the revisions in this new edition were included because of comments and suggestions from those conversations and letters. Thank you for your ideas. 1 hope that by sharing we can help each other and thereby help our students more. Please continue corresponding by mail or by e-mail. Pamela Sharpe 1406 Camino Real Yuma, Arizona 85364 sharpe @ teflprep.com

ACKNOWLEDGMENTS

With affection and deep appreciation I acknowledge my indebtedness to the friends, family, and colleagues who have been part of the TOEFL team for so many years:

The late Dr. Jayne Harder, former Director of the English Language Institute at the University of Florida for initiating me into the science of linguistics and the art of teaching English as a second language; Robert and Lillie Sharpe, my parents, for their enthusiastic encouragement during the preparation of the first manuscript and for their assistance in typing and proofreading previous editions; The late Dr. Tom Clapp, former Dean of Continuing Education at the University of Toledo for the maturity and confidence that I gained during our marriage because he believed in me; Carole Berglie, former Editor at Barron's Educational Series for her guidance in seeing the first edition of the manuscript through to publication, and to all of the editors at Barron's for their contributions to later editions; Wendy Sleppin, Project Editor at Barron's Educational Series for her invaluable insights and wise counsel during every stage of development and publication; acknowledgment does not begin to express my gratitude for her collaboration during our long association; Debby Becak, Production Manager at Barron's Educational Series for the suggestions and designs, large and small, that have improved every chapter; Joan Franklin, President, and John Rockwell, Editor, at Cinema Sound for casting and directing the talent voices and bringing the script to life;

ix

Michele Sandifer, Copy Editor for her constructive criticism and helpful corrections throughout the manuscript; Kathy Telford, Proofreader at Proofreader's Plus for her skillful review of the pages, her attention to the important details in the writing process, and her positive approach to errors; Roxanne Nuhaily, Associate Director of the English Language Program at the University of California, San Diego for field testing the items for the computer adaptive model test: Dr. Sheri McCarthy-Tucker, Associate Professor at Northern Arizona University for analyzing 'and calibrating the items for the adaptive model test; Karen McNiel, Reading Coordinator at Yuma High School and Dr. Jean Zukowski-Faust, Professor at Northern Arizona University for reviewing the reading level and collaborating in the revision of selected reading passages in the computer-based model tests; Dennis Oliver, Professor at Estrella Mountain Community College for coauthoring the Glossary of Campus Vocabulary in a collaborative project for Test University (testu.com); Faye Chiu, Director at Test University for managing the transformation from print to CD-ROM on this and previous editions; John T. Osterman, my husband-a special thank you for the unconditional love, the daily interest in and support for my writing career; each revision of this book is better than the last, and every new and revised year with John is the best year of my life.

x

PERMISSIONS

"Civilization" From Western Civilization,Comprehensive Volume, 4th Edition, by Jackson J. Spielvoge102000. Reprinted with permission of Wadsworth, a division of Thomson Learning: www.thomsonrights.com. "Scientific Method" From The Sciences-An Integrated Approach, 3rd Edition, by James Trefill and Robert M. Hazen 02001 John Wiley & Sons, Inc. This material is used by permission of John Wiley & Sons, Inc.

"Symbiotic Relationships" From Environmental Sciences, 8th Edition, by Eldon D. Enger and Bradley F. Smith 02002 McGraw-Hill Companies. This passage is used with the permission of the McGraw-Hill Companies. TOEFL materials are reprinted by permission of Educational Testing Service, the copyright owner. However, the test questions and any other testing information are provided in their entirety by Barron's Educational Series, Inc. No endorsem*nt of this publication by Educational Testing Service should be inferred.

THE 'CHREE TOEFL FORMATS Paper-Based TOEFL

Computer-Based TOEFL

Next Generation TOEFL

Tutorial

No questions

Variable

Variable

Listening

50 questions

30-50 questions

33-34 questions

1 Speaking

1 NOquestions

1 NOquestions

Listeningtspeaking

No questions

No questions

Included

Structure

40 questions

20-25 questions

No questions

Reading

50 questions

45-55 questions

36-39 questions

ReadingISpeaking

No questions

No questions

Included

Writing

1 question

1 question

2 questions

Listeningmriting

No questions

No questions

Included

Readingwriting

No questions

No questions

Included

TIME

3 hours

4 hours, 30 minutes

4 hours

1

6 questions

/

Note: The actual times will vary in accordance with the time the supervisor completes the preliminary work and begins the actual test. On the Computer-Based TOEFL and the Next Generation TOEFL, the time for the tutorial will vary from one person to another. Exact numbers of questions will also vary slightly from one test to another for statistical purposes. This is a good estimate.

INTRODUCTION

STUDY PLAN FOR THE TOEFL

3

Many students do not prepare for the TOEFL. They do not even read the Information Bulletin that they receive from Educational Testing Service along with their registration forms. You have an advantage. Using this book, you have a study plan.

There are three books in the Barron's TOEFL series to help you prepare for the Test of English as a Foreign Language. Each book has a different purpose. Barron's Practice Exercises for the TOEFL. A book for learners who need additional practice for the TOEFL. It includes a general preview of the TOEFL examination and almost one thousand exercises. Six separate audio CDs accompany the book to give you practice in listening and speaking. You may have used Barron's Practice Exercises for the TOEFL before using this book. Many students use Barron's Practice Exercises for the TOEFL as a workbook for the book you are using now. Barron's How to Prepare for the TOEFL. A book for learners who need review and practice for the TOEFL. It includes questions and answers about the TOEFL examination, a detailed review for each section of the examination, and eight model tests sirriilar to the Computer-Based TOEFL examination. Several sets of additional materials are available to supplement this book, including a separate package of cassette tapes, a separate package of audio compact disks, or the book may be accompanied by compact disks for audio only, or a CD-ROM for use with a computer. A computer-adaptive test like that of the Computer-Based TOEFL is found on the CD-ROM. In addition, Model Test 9 in the book and on the CD-ROM provides an opportunity to practice taking a Next Generation TOEFL test. Barron's Pass Key to the TOEFL. A pocket-sizededition of Barron's How to Prepare for the TOEFL. It is for learners who need review and practice for the TOEFL and want to be able to carry a smaller book with them. It includes questions and answers about the TOEFL examination, basic tips on how to prepare for the TOEFL, and four model tests from Barron's How to Prepare for the TOEFL. Two audio CDs accompany the book to give you practice in listening and speaking. '

More About This Book In preparing to take the TOEFL or any other language examination, it is very important to review the language skills for each section of the examination and to have an opportunity to take model tests that are similar to the actual examination. Reviewing will help you recall some of the language skills you have studied in previous classes and other books. Taking model tests will give you the experience of taking a TOEFL before you take the actual examination. If you plan to take the Computer-BasedTOEFL or the Next Generation TOEFL, it is especially important for you to practice using the CD-ROM that supplements this book. Remember, the purpose of the book is to provide you with a detailed review of the language skills for each section of the TOEFL examination and to provide you with opportunities to take model tests similar to the actual TOEFL examination. By studying this book, you should renew and sharpen your skills, increase your speed, and improve your score.

Planning to Take the TOEFL Most learners who use Barron's How to Prepare for the TOEFL take the test immediately after they have finished studying this book. More than one million Barron's students have been successful on the TOEFL. You can be successful, too.

4

INTRODUCTION

Study Plan I-For Intermediate Level Learners First, use Barron's Practice Exercises for the TOEFL. Then use this book, Barron's How to Prepare for the TOEFL.

Study Plan 11-For High Intermediate Level or Advanced Learners Use this book, Barron's How to Prepare for the TOEFL. Follow the Twelve-Week Calendar.

A Twelve-Week Calendar Week One ~ e a Chapter d 1, "Introduction." Read Chapter 2, "Questions and Answers Concerning the TOEFL." Request a copy of the TOEFL Information Bulletin or download it from the TOEFL web site. Register for your test date. Take Model Test 1 to determine which sections will be most challenging. Week Two Focus on Listening. Refer to Chapter 3 and review the listening problems. Mark problems that you need to study. Week Three If you are taking the Next Generation TOEFL: Focus on Speaking. Refer to Chapter 4 and preview the speaking problems. Mark problems that you need to study. If you are taking the Computer-Based TOEFL or the Paper-Based TOEFL: Use this time to review one of the other sections that you identified as challenging when you took Model Test 1. Week Four If you are taking the Computer-Based TOEFL or the Paper-Based TOEFL: Focus on Structure. Refer to Chapter 5 and review the structure problems. Mark problems that you need to study. If you are taking the Next Generation TOEFL: Use this time to review one of the other sections that you identified as challenging when you took Model Test I . Week Five Focus on Reading. Refer to Chapter 6 and review the reading problems. Mark problems that you need to study. Week Six Focus on Writing. Refer to Chapter 7 and review the writing problems. Mark problems that you need to study. Week Seven Take Model Test 2 and write the essay. Refer to the Explanatory Answers in Chapter 10. Mark items that you need to review.

STUDY PLAN FOR THE TOEFL

5

Week Eight Take Model Test 3 and write the essay. Refer to the Explanatory Answers in Chapter 10. Mark items that you need to review. Week Nine Take Model Tests 4 and 5 and write the essays. Refer to the Explanatory Answers in Chapter 10. Mark items that you need to review. Week Ten Take Model Tests 6 and 7 and write the essays. Refer to the Explanatory Answers in Chapter 10. Mark items that you need to review. Week Eleven Review all the problems that you have marked in the review chapters. Take Model Test 8 and write the essay. Refer to the Explanatory Answers in Chapter 10. Mark items that you need to review. Week Twelve Focus on the test format If you are taking the Paper-Based Model Test: Review all the items that you have marked in the model tests. If you are taking the Computer-Based TOEFL: Take the Computer-Adaptive TOEFL if you have the CD-ROM. If you are taking the Next Generation TOEFL: Take Model Test 9 in the book or on the CD-ROM.

Adjusting the Calendar Ideally, you will have twelve weeks to prepare for the TOEFL. But, if you have a shorter time to prepare, follow the plan in the same order, adjusting the time to meet your needs.

Plan for Preparation To improve your scores most, follow this plan: First, if you have taken the TOEFL before, you already know which section or sections are difficult for you. Look at the part scores on your score report. If your lowest score is on Listening, then you should spend more time reviewing Section 1. If your lowest score is on Section 2 or Section 3, then you should spend more time reviewing them. Second, spend time preparing every day for at least an hour instead of sitting down to review once a week for seven hours. Even though you are studying for the same amount of time, research shows that daily shorter sessions produce better results on the test. Finally, do not try to memorize questions from this or any other book. The questions on the test that you take will be very similar to the questions in this book, but they will not be exactly the same. What you should try to do as you use this and your other books is learn how to apply your knowledge. Do not hurry through the practice exercises. While you are checking your answers to the model tests, think about the correct answer. Why is it correct? Can you explain the answer to yourself before you check the explanatory answer? Is the question similar to others that you have seen before?

6

INTRODUCTION

Plan for Additional Preparation Although this book should provide you with enough review material, some of you will want to do more in order to prepare for the TOEFL. Suggestions for each section follow. To prepare for Listening. Listen to radio and television newscasts and weather reports, television documentaries, lectures on educational television stations, and free lectures sponsored by clubs and universities. Attend movies in English. Try to make friends with speakers of American English and participate in conversations. Toprepare for Speaking. Talk on the telephone in English with a friend. Ask each other your opinions about conversational topics. Use a timer to become accustomed to answering in 60 seconds. To prepare for Structure. Use an advanced grammar review book. If you are attending an English course, do not stop attending. To prepare for Reading. Read articles in English newspapers and magazines, college catalogs and admissions materials, travel brochures, and entries that interest you from American and English encyclopedias. Try to read a variety of topics-American history, culture, social science, and natural science. To prepare for Writing. Refer to the TOEFL lnformation Bulletin for the Computer-Based TOEFL or visit the TOEFL web site at www.toefl.org. Actual essay topics for the TOEFL are listed in the TOEFL lnformation Bulletin and on the web site. For a fee, the test developers will grade one of your practice essays. Click on "Score It Now."

Learn to relax. If you start to panic in the examination room, close your eyes and say "no" in your mind. Tell yourself, "I will not panic. I am prepared." Then take several slow, deep breaths, letting your shoulders drop in a relaxed manner as you exhale. Concentrate on the questions. Do not talk. Concentrate your attention. Do not look at anything in the test room except the answers that correspond to the question you are working on. Do not think about your situation, the test in general, your score, or your future. If you do, force yourself to return to the question. If you do not understand a problem and you do not have a good answer, do your best. Then stop thinking about it. Be ready for the next problem. Do not cheat. In spite of opportunity, knowledge that others are doing it, desire to help a friend, or fear that you will not make a good score, do not cheat. On the TOEFL, cheating is a very serious matter. If you are discovered, your test will not be scored. Legal action may be taken by Educational Testing Service (ETS).

Your attitude will influence your success on the TOEFL examination. You must develop patterns of positive thinking. To help in developing a positive attitude, memorize the following sentences and bring them to mind after each study session. Bring them to mind when you begin to have negative thoughts. I know more today than I did yesterday. I am preparing. I will succeed.

STUDY PLAN FOR THE TOEFL

7

Remember, some tension is normal and good. Accept it. Use it constructively. It will motivate you to study. But don't panic or worry. Panic will cause loss of concentration and poor performance. Avoid people who panic and worry. Don't listen to them. They will encourage negative thoughts. You know more today than you did yesterday. You are preparing. You will succeed. There is more "Advice for Success" at the end of each review chapter. Please read and consider the advice as you continue your study plan.

QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS CONCERNING THE TOEFL

TOEFL PROGRAMS

11

The TOEFL is the Test of English as a Foreign Language. Almost one million students from 180 countries register to take the TOEFL every year at test centers throughout the world. Some of them do not pass the TOEFL because they do not understand enough English. Others do not pass it because they do not understand the examination. The following questions are commonly asked by students as they prepare for the TOEFL. To help you, they have been answered here.

What is the purpose of the TOEFL? Since 1963, the TOEFL has been used by scholarship selection committees of governments, universities, and agencies such as Fulbright, the Agency for International Development, AMIDEAST, Latin American Scholarship Programs, and others as a standard measure of the English proficiency of their candidates. Some professional licensing and certification agencies also use TOEFL scores to evaluate English proficiency. The admissions committees of more than 4,400 colleges and universities in the United States, Canada, and many other countries worldwide require foreign applicants to submit TOEFL scores along with transcripts and recommendations in order to be considered for admission. Many universities use TOEFL scores to fulfill the foreign language requirement for doctoral candidates whose first language is not English.

Which TOEFL testing programs are available now? The official TOEFL examination is currently administered at test sites around the world in three different formats: the Paper-Based TOEFL (PBT), the Computer-Based TOEFL (CBT), and the Next Generation TOEFL. The language proficiency skills are tested on every format, but they are tested in different ways. In addition to the official TOEFL administrations, some schools and agencies administer the institutional TOEFL for their students and employees. The institutional TOEFL is usually the Paper-Based format.

What is the Computer-Based TOEFL program? The CBT is a computer-adaptive test that is offered as an official standard for language proficiency worldwide. The CBT is also called the Official TOEFL. The Computer-Based TOEFL has four sections: Listening, Structure, Writing, and Reading. The Writing is equivalent to the Test of Written English (TWE) on the Paper-Based TOEFL. The CBT is an adaptive test, which means that everyone who takes the TOEFL during the same administration may not see and answer the same questions. The computer selects questions for you at your level of proficiency. There are three subscores-Listening, StructureNVriting, and Reading. The total score is based on a scale of 0-300.

What is the Paper-Based TOEFL? The PBT is a pencil and paper test that is offered for two purposes. One purpose of the PBT is for placement and progress evaluations. Colleges or other institutions use the PBT to test their students. The scores are not valid outside the place where they are administered, but the college or institution accepts the PBT that they administer as an official score. This PBT is also called an Institutional TOEFL.

12

QUES-NONS AND ANSWERS CONCERNING THE TOEFL

The other purpose of the PBT is to supplement the official Computer-Based TOEFL in areas where computer-based testing is not possible. The scores are usually valid outside the place where they are administered. This PBT is also called a Supplemental TOEFL. The Paper-Based TOEFL has three sections: Listening Comprehension, Structure and Written Expression, and Reading. In addition, the TWE is a required essay that provides a writing score. The PBT is a linear test, which means that everyone who takes the TOEFL during the same administration will see and answer the same questions. The total score is based on a scale of 310-677.

What is the Next Generation TOEFL? The Next Generation TOEFL is a computer-assisted test that will be introduced in September 2005 worldwide. The Next Generation TOEFL has four sections: Listening, Speaking, Reading, and Writing. The Speaking Section was already introduced in 2003 as the TOEFL Academic Speaking Test (TAST) and can be taken and scored without the other sections. On the four-part Next Generation TOEFL, most of the questions are independent, but some of the questions are integrated. For example, you may be asked to listen to a lecture or read a text and then speak about it or write a response. The total score will probably be based on a scale of 0-100.

What is the lnstitutional TOEFL program? More than 1,200 schools, colleges, universities, and private agencies administer the lnstitutional TOEFL. The lnstitutional TOEFL is the same length, format, and difficulty as the official Paper-Based TOEFL, but the dates and the purposes of the lnstitutional TOEFL are different from those of the official TOEFL. The dates for the lnstitutional TOEFL usually correspond to the beginning of an academic session on a college or university calendar. The lnstitutional TOEFL is used for admission, placement, eligibility, or employment only at the school or agency that offers the test. If you plan to use your scores for a different college, university, or agency, you should take one of the official TOEFL tests. For more information about the lnstitutional TOEFL Program, contact the school or agency that administers the test.

How can I order an lnformation Bulletin? There are three ways to order a TOEFL lnformation Bulletin. Download www.toefl.org Phone 1-609-771-7100 Mail TOEFL Services P.O. Box 6151 Princeton, NJ 08541-6151 U.S.A. Many schools and educational advising centers also have copies of the TOEFL Information Bulletin in their counseling centers. If you order your TOEFL lnformation Bulletin by mail, it is correct to limit your correspondence to two sentences. For example:

TOEFL PROGRAMS

13

REQUEST FOR THE TOEFL INFORMATION BULLETIN (write your address here) (write the date here) TOEFL Order Services P.O. 6151 Princeton, NJ 08541-6161 U.S.A. Dear TOEFL Representative: Please send me a copy of the TOEFL Information Bulletin. Thank you for your earliest attention. Sincerely yours, (write your name here)

The TOEFL Infomation Bulletin is often available overseas in the U.S. embassies and advising offices of the United States lnformation Service, binational centers, IIE and AMIDEAST Counseling Centers, Fulbright offices, and ETS Regional Registration Centers as well as from international TOEFL representatives.

May I choose the format of my TOEFL-Computer-Based TOEFL, or Next Generation TOEFL?

TOEFL, Paper-Based

When the Computer-Based TOEFL is phased in for the area where you will take your TOEFL, you must take the Computer-Based TOEFL. The TOEFL web site lists the areas where the Supplemental Paper-Based TOEFL has been reintroduced on a temporary basis. .When the Next Generation TOEFL appears in 2005, the plan is to phase out the Computer-Based TOEFL and retain a minimum number of Supplemental Paper-Based TOEFL sites.

Which language skills are tested on the Computer-Based TOEFL? In general, the same language skills are tested in all TOEFL formats. Some differences occur in the number of sections and the types of questions used to test the language skills, however. Charts that outline the differences are included in the Quick Comparisons in the review chapters for each section of the TOEFL. The chart below shows the four sections on the Computer-Based TOEFL. Section 1 Listening Section 2 StructureNVriting Section 3 Reading On the Computer-Based TOEFL, the essay counts 50 percent of the total score for Section 2.

14

QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS CONCERNING THE TOEFL

Which language skills are tested on the Paper-Based TOEFL? In general, the same language skills are tested in all TOEFL formats. Some differences occur in the number of sections and the types of questions used to test the language skills, however. Charts that outline the differences are included in the Quick Comparisons in the review chapters for each section of the TOEFL. The chart below shows the three sections on the Paper-Based TOEFL. Section 1 Section 2 Section 3

Listening Structure Reading

Does the TOEFL have a Composition Section? The Computer-Based TOEFL has a Writing Section. On the Writing Section and on the TWE (Test of Written English), you must write a short essay on an assigned topic. The essay should be about 300 words long. The topic is typical of academic writing requirements at colleges and universities in North America. You have 30 minutes to finish writing. Both the Writing Section and the TWE are described in greater detail in the Tutorial for the Writing Section. The Paper-Based TOEFL does not have a Composition Section. However, you are also required to take the TWE. It is a short essay on an assigned topic. The essay should be 300-350 words long. The topic is usually an opinion question. You have 30 minutes to finish writing. The TWE rating is reported as a separate score from that of the TOEFL.

Does the TOEFL have a Speaking Section? The Computer-Based TOEFL does not have a Speaking Section. Only the Next Generation TOEFL includes a Speaking Section. A Speaking Section is planned for the Paper-Based TOEFL, but it has not been included in the test yet. It will probably be administered by telephone.

Are all the TOEFL tests the same length? The forms for the TOEFL vary in length. Some items are included for research purposes and are not scored. On the Computer-Based TOEFL, items are selected by the computer based on the level of difficulty and the number of correct responses from previous items. Difficult items are worth more points than average or easy items. All of the forms for the Paper-Based TOEFL are the same length-140 questions. Occasionally, additional questions are included for research purposes, but they are not included in the section scores.

How do the Paper-Based TOEFL and the Institutional TOEFL compare with the Computer-Based TOEFL? The Paper-Based TOEFL and the lnstitutional TOEFL are different from the Computer-Based TOEFL for several reasons. First, taking a test with a pencil and paper is different from taking a test with a computer. Second, the test designs are different. The Paper-Based TOEFL and the Institutional TOEFL are linear tests. This means that all the questions appear in a row and everyone receives the same questions. The Computer-Based TOEFL has two sections, Listening and Structure, that are computer-adaptive. This means that only one questidn appears on the screen at a time, and everyone does not receive the same questions. Everyone begins with a question of average difficulty. If you answer it correctly, you are given a more difficult question. If you answer it incorrectly, you are given an easier

REGISTRATION

15

question. You receive more points for answering difficult questions correctly than you do for answering average or easy questions correctly. For a more detailed comparison of the Paper-Based TOEFL with the Computer-Based TOEFL, please refer to the Quick Comparisons in each review chapter of this book.

Is the Conrputer-Based TOEFL fair? The Computer-Based TOEFL is fair because the computer is constantly adjusting the selection of items based on your previous responses. It allows you to achieve the maximum number of points that you are capable of based on your English language proficiency. In addition, everyone receives the same test content and the same proportion of question types-multiple-choice and computer-assisted.

What if I have little experience with computers? The beginning of the official Computer-Based TOEFL has a Tutorial to help you become familiar with the computer before you begin your test. In the Tutorial, you will review how to use a mouse, how to scroll, and how to answer all the question types on the test. The Tutorials on the CD-ROM are similar. If you would like to work through the official Tutorial before the day of your Computer-BasedTOEFL, you can download it at no charge from the TOEFL web site at www.ets.org/cbt~cbtdemo.html.

How do I register for the TOEFL? There are three ways to register for the Computer-Based TOEFL. If you plan to pay by credit cardVISA, Mastercard, or American Express-you may register by phone. Call Candidate Services at 1-800-468-6335to make an appointment for a test in the United States, or phone your Regional Registration Center to make an appointment for a test in another country. The phone numbers for the regional centers are listed in the TOEFL lnformation Bulletin. If you plan to pay by check, money order, or credit card, you may register by mail. To arrange a test in the United States, Canada, Puerto Rico, or a U.S. territory, return the voucher request form in your TOEFL lnformation Bulletin, along with your registration fee, to TOEFL Services in Princeton, New Jersey. A mailing label is provided in the TOEFL lnformation Bulletin. To arrange a test in all other locations where the Computer-Based TOEFL is offered, return the International Test Scheduling Form to your Regional Registration Center. Mailing labels are provided in the TOEFL lnformation Bulletin. Be sure to sign the form and include your registration fee. You may be asked to choose two days of the week and two months of the year as well as two test centers. If no appointments are available on the dates you have requested, you will be assigned a date close to the request you have made. The lnformation Bulletin for the Paper-Based TOEFL has a registration form in it. Using the directions in the TOEFL lnformation Bulletin, fill out the form and mail it to the TOEFL Registration Office. Be sure to sign the form and include your registration fee. To register online, visit www.toefl.org.

When should I register for the TOEFL? If you are taking the TOEFL as part of the application process for college or university admission, plan to take the test early enough for your score to be received by the admission office in time to be considered with your application. Usually, a test date at least two months before the admission application deadline allows adequate time for your scores to be considered with your admission application. Test

16

QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS CONCERNING THE TOEFL

centers often receive more requests than they can accommodate on certain dates. Try to schedule your appointment by phone or mail at least a month before the date you prefer to take the TOEFL, especially in October, November, December, April, and May. You must call at least three days before the appointment date that you are requesting.

What are the fees for the TOEFL? In the United States, the registration fee for both the Computer-Based TOEFL and the Paper-Based TOEFL is $130 U.S. The fee may be paid by check, credit card, money order, bank draft, or U.S. postal money order. In Canada, the fee is $130 U.S. plus taxes. In other countries, the registration fee is also $130 U.S. However, because of exchange rates, the actual cost may vary from one country to another. For exact fees in local currency and options for payment, refer to the TOEFL Information Bulletin.

Which credit cards will be accepted? Only Mastercard, VISA, and American Express may be used to pay for TOEFL registration fees and services.

May I pay by check or money order? In order to pay for the Computer-Based TOEFL (CBT) by check or money order, you should complete a voucher request form and mail it to the TOEFL Office with your payment. This form and an envelope for it are bound in the middle of the TOEFL lnformation Bulletin for the Computer-Based TOEFL. You can also find these materials on the TOEFL web site. You will receive a CBT voucher by return mail. In order to pay for the Paper-Based TOEFL by check or money order, include payment with your registration form. Checks, bank drafts, and money orders must be drawn on a bank in the U.S. Canadian checks will be subject to taxes. Do not send cash or demand drafts.

Which currencies will be accepted? Payments at the current exchange rate for the U.S. dollar may be made in the following currencies: Australian dollar, British pound, Canadian dollar, Danish krone, Euro, Hong Kong dollar, Japanese yen, New Zealand dollar, Norwegian kroner, Singapore dollar, Swedish krona, Swiss franc.

Is there a fast way to send mail to the TOEFL Office? For the fastest delivery, use e-mail on the TOEFL web site. For rush mail delivery, use the express courier delivery address: TOEFL Services (25-Q-310) Distribution and Receiving Center 225 Phillips Blvd. Ewing, NJ 08628-7435 U.S.A.

REGISTRATION

17

Will Educational Testing Service (ETS) confirm my registration? If you register for the Computer-Based TOEFL, you will receive an appointment confirmation number. If you do not receive an appointment confirmation number or if you lose your appointment confirmation number, call 1-800-GOTOEFL (1-800-468-6335) in the United States or call your Regional Registration Center outside the United States. The phone numbers for regional registration centers are listed in the TOEFL Information Bulletin. If you register for the Paper-Based TOEFL, you will receive an admission ticket. Your admission ticket is your confirmation. You must complete the ticket and take it with you to the test center on the day of the test along kith your passport. If you have not received your admission ticket two weeks before the test, contact TOEFL Services.

May I change the date or cancel my registration? In the United States, Canada, Puerto Rico, and U.S. territories, call Candidate Services at 1-800-468-6335. Be sure to call by noon, three business days before the date of your appointment, or you will not receive a partial reimbursem*nt of your registration fee, usually $65. If you want to choose a different date, you may be asked to pay a rescheduling fee of $40. In all other locations, call your Re-

gional Registration Center by noon, five business days before the date of your appointment, or you will not receive a partial reimbursem*nt of your registration fee. If you want to choose a different date, you may be asked to pay a rescheduling fee of $40. You must provide your appointment confirmation number when you call. You will be given a cancellation number. Test date changes are not permitted for the Paper-Based TOEFL; however, you may receive absentee credit. If you cancel your test, the refund request form and the unused admission ticket must arrive within 60 days of your test date for you to receive $65 cash or a $65 credit toward registration for a different date. Mail the form and the admission ticket to TOEFL Services or fax them to 1-609-771-7500. Allow ten weeks for the refund to arrive.

May I give my appointnlent to a friend? Appointments cannot be reassigned or exchanged among friends.

How should I prepare the night before the TOEFL? Don't go to a party the night before you take your TOEFL examination, but don't try to review everything that you have studied either. By going to a party, you will lose the opportunity to review a few problems that may add valuable points to your TOEFL score. By trying to review everything, though, you will probably get confused, and you may even panic. Instead, select a limited amount of material to review the night before you take the TOEFL. And remember, you are not trying to score 100 percent on the TOEFL examination. No one knows everything. If you answer 75 percent of the questions correctly, you will receive an excellent score.

May I register on the day of the TOEFL? Registration of candidates on the day of the test is permitted for only the Computer-Based TOEFL, but most of the time there is no space. Candidates who arrive at the center are admitted only if a seat is available. Registration is not available for the Paper-Based TOEFL on the day of the test administration.

18

QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS CONCERNING THE TOEFL

Where are the test centers? The most recent listing of the test centers for the TOEFL administrations worldwide is found in the current TOEFL Information Bulletin or on the TOEFL web site.

May I change my test center assignment? You may go to another center on the date printed on your admission ticket, but you may or may not find a seat and test materials available.

What kind of room will be used for the TOEFL? Rooms used for the Computer-BasedTOEFL are small. They are like the study areas in a library or in a language laboratory. Usually only six to fifteen students are at individual computer stations. Each student has a headset. Rooms used for the Paper-BasedTOEFL tend to be large, but they vary greatly from one test site to another. The seats are usually school desks. It is a good idea to wear clothing that allows you to adjust to warm or cold room temperatures.

What sho~rldI take with me to the examination room? For the Computer-BasedTOEFL, take your appointment confirmation number and your official identification. Also take the institution and department codes for the schools or agencies to which you will report your scores. These codes can be found in the TOEFL lnformation Bulletin. You will not need a watch because the computer screen has a clock face on it. Books, dictionaries, tape recorders, cellular phones, pagers, highlighters, pens, and notes are not permitted in the examination room. Some centers will have lockers for you to store your possessions but it is really better not to take with you anything that you cannot take into the examination room. For the Paper-Based TOEFL, take your admission ticket, photo identification form, and official photo identification with you. Taking three sharpened pencils and a watch would be helpful, although most examination rooms will have clocks. Books, dictionaries, tape recorders, cellular phones, pagers, highlighters, pens, and notes are not permitted in the examination room. Don't forget the institution and department codes for the schools or agencies to which you will report your scores.

What kind of identification is required?

In the United States, only your valid passport will be accepted for admission to the Computer-Based TOEFL examination. In other countries, your valid passport is still the best identification, but if you do not have a passport, you may refer to the TOEFL Information Bulletin for special directions. Your photograph will be taken at the test center and reproduced on all official score reports sent to institutions. Your identification will be checked against the new photograph. In addition, all Computer-Based TOEFL sessions will be videotaped. Be sure to use the same spelling and order of your name on your registration materials or phone registration, the test center log that you will sign when you enter the test area, the forms on the computer screens, and any correspondence that you may have with TOEFL Services, Candidate Services, or other local representatives. The test center supervisor will not admit you to the Paper-Based TOEFL examination if you do not have official identification. In the United States, only.your valid passport will be accepted. The supervisor will not allow you to enter with an expired passport or a photocopy of your passport. In other countries,

TEST ADMINISTRATION

19

your valid passport is still the best identification, but if you do not have a passport, you may refer to the TOEFL Information Bulletin for special directions. Be sure that your photo identification form and your passport picture look like you do on the day of the examination. If not, you may not be admitted to the examination room. Be sure to use the same spelling and order of your name on your registration materials, admission ticket, answer sheet, and any correspondence that you may have with either TOEFL Services or your Regional Registration Center.

Will I sign a confidentiality statement? Before you begin the Computer-Based or Paper-Based TOEFL, you may be asked to sign a confidentiality statement. You will agree to keep confidential the content of all test questions. The purpose of this procedure is to protect the security of the test.

Where should I sit? You will be assigned a seat. You may not select your own seat. It is usually better not to sit with friends anyway. If you do, you may find yourself looking at friends instead of concentrating on your test materials. You may even be accused of cheating if you appear to be communicating in some way.

What if I am late? Report to the test center 30 minutes before the appointment for your TOEFL. You will need a half hour to check in. If you arrive late, you may not be admitted, and your fee may not be refunded.

How long is the testing session of the TOEFL? The time for the Computer-BasedTOEFL will vary, depending on your familiarity with computers. A computer Tutorial is offered at the beginning of the session for those who need some practice using the computer before taking the Computer-BasedTOEFL. In general, the Computer-BasedTOEFL takes between four hours and four hours and 30 minutes, including the Tutorial. When you finish, you may leave the room quietly. The total time for the testing session of the Paper-Based TOEFL is three hours. Since the instructions are not included as part of the timed sections, the actual time that you will spend in the examination room will be about three hours and 30 minutes. When you finish, you must sit quietly until the supervisor dismisses the group.

How much time do I have to complete each of the sections? Work as rapidly as possible without compromising accuracy. Check the Timetable for the TOEFL on page x for an estimate.

Are breaks scheduled during the TOEFL? A 10-minute break is scheduled during the Computer-Based TOEFL. It usually occurs between the Structure and the Reading Sections. No breaks are scheduled for the Paper-Based TOEFL.

Is there a place to eat lunch at the test centers? Some of the testing centers are conveniently located near restaurants, but many, especially the mobile centers, are not. You may want to take a snack with you to eat before or after your test.

20

QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS CONCERNING THE TOEFL

How can I complain about a test administration? If you feel that the test situation was not fair, you have a right to register a complaint by mail or by fax. Within three days of the date of the test, write a letter to Test Administration Services. Their address appears on page 12. If you prefer to send a fax, the fax number is 1-609-771-7500. Mention the date of your test, the city, and the country. Explain why you feel that the test was not fair.

What kinds of questions are found on the TOEFL? The majority of the questions on the Computer-Based TOEFL are multiple-choice. Some other types of questions are also on the Computer-Based TOEFL. These questions have special directions on the screen. You will have many examples of them in the Model Tests in this book. All the questions on the Paper-Based TOEFL are multiple-choice.

How do I answer the test questions? When you are presented with a multiple-choice question on the Computer-Based TOEFL, read the four possible answers on the screen, point the arrow, and click beside the answer that you choose. The oval will change from white to black. When you are presented with other types of questions, follow the directions on the screen. To answer test questions on the Paper-Based TOEFL, read the four possible answers in your test book, and mark the corresponding space on the answer sheet.

How do I mark the answers? MARKING THE ANSWER SCREEN: COMPUTER-BASED TOEFL One question is shown on the computer screen. One answer is marked on the screen.

Directions: Click on the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence.

The United States is a country in

0 South America 0 Central America Notlh America

0 Antarctica

EXAMINATION

21

MARKING THE ANSWER SHEET: SUPPLEMENTAL PAPER-BASED TOEFL One question is shown in the test book. One answer is marked on the answer sheet. 1.

Horizontal version 1 Vertical version

The United States is a country in (A) South America (B) Central America (C) North America (D) Antarctica

a@ 0a

1

0 6

e @ CORRECT

a @ . @

WRONG

WRONG

@a@@ m@@a

WRONG

@@a@

On the Computer-Based TOEFL, you will have an opportunity to practice marking the answers to questions on the computer screen before the examination begins. The Tutorial will include all the different types of questions on the Computer-Based TOEFL.

May I make notes in the test book or on the scratch paper? There is no test book for the Computer-Based TOEFL. All the questions and the answer options are presented on the computer screen. You may not use the scratch paper for your essay to make notes for any other section of the test. You are not allowed to make marks in your test book for the Paper-Based TOEFL. You may not underline words or write notes in the margins of the test book. Doing so is considered cheating.

May I change an answer? On the first two sections of the Computer-Based TOEFL, Listening and Structure, you can change your answer by clicking on the new answer. You can change your answer as many times as you wish until you click on the Confirm Answer button. When you click on Confirm Answer, you move to the next question, and you cannot go back to a previous question. On the third section of the ComputerBased TOEFL, Reading, you can change your answer as many times as you wish. You may go on to the next question and back to the previous questions. The CD-ROM that supplements this book will provide you with practice in choosing and changing answers on the computer screen. You may erase an answer on the answer sheet of the Paper-Based TOEFL if you do so carefully and completely. Stray pencil marks may cause inaccurate scoring by the test-scoring machine.

If I am not sure of an answer, should I guess? Try to answer every question on the Computer-Based TOEFL. Your score will be based not only on the difficulty of the questions but also on the number of.questions answered.

22

QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS CONCERNING THE TOEFL

If you are not sure of an answer on the Paper-Based TOEFL, you should guess. The number of incorrect answers is not subtracted from your score. Your score is based only on the number of correct answers. Do not mark more than one answer for each question. Do not leave any questions blank on your answer sheet.

How should I guess? In the first two sections of the Computer-Based TOEFL, Listening and Structure, eliminate the incorrect answers, then guess, but do not use a "guess answer" to finish these sections quickly. You will probably receive a lower score for random guessing. On the third section, Reading, try to manage your time so that you can finish all of the questions. If you have only a minute or two left, try to answer all of the remaining questions. Use a "guess answer." Pace yourself so that you can finish as much of the test as possible. On the first two sections, Listening and Structure, you will be scored based on the number of questions answered, the number of correct answers you have submitted, and the level of difficulty of the questions tbat you have answered. On the third section, Reading, you will be scored on the number of questions you have answered and the number of correct answers you have submitted. For the Paper-Based TOEFL, first eliminate all the possibilities that you know are NOT correct. Then, if you are almost sure of an answer, guess that one. If you have no idea of the correct answer for a question, choose one letter and use it for your "guess" answer throughout the entireexamination. The "guess answer" is especially useful for finishing a section quickly. If the supervisor tells you to stop working on a section before you have finished it, answer all the remaining questions with the "guess answer."

What should I do if I discover that I have marked my answers incorrectly? Marking your screen incorrectly on the Computer-Based TOEFL is not possible because the computer program will present only one question on each screen. If you change your mind after you have confirmed a response on the Listening or Structure sections, the computer will not allow you to return to a previous question on these two sections, and you will not be able to change the answer that you have confirmed. As you see, it is very important to be sure of the answer before you click on Confirm Answer. Do not panic if you have marked an answer incorrectly on the Paper-Based TOEFL. Notify the supervisor immediately. If you have marked one answer in the wrong space on the answer sheet, the rest of the answers will be out of sequence. Ask for time at the end of the examination to correct the sequence. The TOEFL test supervisor may or may not allow you to do this. To save time finding the number on the answer sheet that corresponds to the problem you are reading, to avoid mismarking, and to save space on your desk, use your test book as a marker on your answer sheet. As you advance, slide the book down underneath the number of the question that you are marking on the answer sheet.

May I choose tlie order of the sections on my TOEFL? You may not choose the order. Listening, Structure, and Reading are tested in that order on both the Computer-Based TOEFL and the Paper-Based TOEFL. The essay is written last. When you have finished with a section, you may not work on any other section of the test.

What if I cannot hear the tape for the Listening Section? You have your own headset for the Computer-Based TOEFL. Before the Listening Section begins, you will have an opportunity to adjust the volume yourself. Be careful to adjust the volume when you are prompted to do so. If you wait until the test begins, you may not be able to adjust it. The supervisor for the Paper-Based TOEFL has the responsibility of making sure that everyone is able to hear the tape. If you cannot hear it well, raise your hand and ask the supervisor to adjust the volume.

SCORE REPORTS

23

May I keep my test? TOEFL Services publishes copies of TOEFL tests and makes them available for purchase. Visit the TOEFL web site for more information. If you try to keep or copy TOEFL tests from your test administration, the TOEFL Office may take legal action.

What can I do if I do not appear to take the test? There is a $65 refund for the Computer-Based TOEFL if you cancel your test five business days before the date of your appointment. If you do not appear to take the Paper-Based TOEFL test without canceling your appointment, you cannot request a refund. If you cancel your appointment, then you are entitled to a refund of $65. Write to TOEFL Services to make your request. You must contact them within 60 days of the date of the TOEFL administration that you have missed.

How is my TOEFL scored? Total Computer-Based TOEFL scores range from 0-300. First, each of the sections of the TOEFL is graded on a scale from 0-30. Then the scores from the sections are added together. Finally, the sum is multiplied by 10 and divided by 3. For example, the following scores were received on the sections: Listening Structure and Writing Reading 75 x 10 = 750 + 3 = 250 Total TOEFL Score

Total Paper-Based TOEFL scores range from 310-677. First, each of the three sections of the TOEFL is graded on a scale from 31-68. Then the scores from the three sections are added together. Finally, the sum is multiplied by 10 and divided by 3. For example, the following scores were received on the three sections: Listening Comprehension Structure and Written Expression Vocabulary and Reading Comprehension 150 x 10 = 1,500 t 3 = 500 Total TOEFL Score The Test of Written English (TWE) rating is reported as a separate score on a scale from 1-6

24

QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS CONCERNING THE TOEFL

How are the Structure and Writing scores combined on the Computer-Based TOEFL? The Structure score counts half of the section score on the Computer-Based TOEFL, and the essay counts half of the score. The rating scale of 1-6 for the essay is converted to a statistical equivalent of the points in the Structure Section.

How ds I interpret my score? There are no passing or failing scores on either the Computer-Based TOEFL or the Paper-Based TOEFL.' Each agency or university will evaluate the scores according to its own requirements. Even at the same university, the requirements may vary for different programs of study, levels of study (graduate or undergraduate), and degrees of responsibility (student or teaching assistant). The following summary of admissions policies are typical of U.S. universities. This assumes, of course, that the applicant's documents other than English proficiency are acceptable.

TYPICAL ADMISSIONS POLICIES OF AMERICAN UNIVERSITIES Paper-Based TOEFL Score 650 or more

600-649 550-599 500-549 450-499 449 or less

Policy

admission assured for graduate students admission assured for undergraduate students admission probable for graduate students admission probable for undergraduate students individual cases reviewed referral to English language program probable

Computer-Based TOEFL Score 280 or more

250-279 213-249 173-21 2 133-172 132 or less

Refer to the TOEFL lnformation Bulletin or web site for a detailed chart of percentile ranks for total TOEFL scores. This will help you interpret your score relative to the scores of others taking the examination.

How do the scores on the Supplemental Paper-Based TOEFL compare with those on the Computer-Based TOEFL? A concordance table is a table that shows comparisons. A concordance table for the Paper-Based TOEFL and the Computer-BasedTOEFL has been mailed to all institutions that use TOEFL scores for admissions decisions. A copy of the concordance table is printed in the TOEFL lnformation Bulletin and posted on the TOEFL web site. A shorter version of the table follows:

Paper-Based TOEFL

677 650 600 550 500 450 400

Computer-Based TOEFL

300 280 250 213 173 133

97

SCORE REPORTS

25

If I score very poorly on one part of the TOEFL, is it still possible to receive a good total score? If you feel that you have done very poorly on one part of a section, do not despair. You may receive a low score on one part of a section and still score well on the total examination if your scores on the other parts of that section and the other sections are good.

When can I see my scores? After you complete your Computer-Based TOEFL, you can view your estimated score on the screen. You will be able to see section scores for both Listening and Reading as well as for the multiplechoice part of the Structure Section. However, the essay, which is included as half of the Structure score, will not have been graded. The estimated score that you will see shows a total score range based on a very poorly written essay or on a very well written essay. For example, your score range might be 150-220. You are entitled to five copies of your test results, including one personal copy for yourself and four official score reports. Your official scores for all sections will be mailed to you about two to five weeks after you take your Computer-Based TOEFL. However, you will have a very good idea of how you performed on the test after you see the estimate. For the Paper-Based TOEFL, you are entitled to five copies of your test results, including one personal copy for yourself and four official score reports. You will receive your copy four or five weeks after you take the test.

How can I know my scores sooner? If your essay is typed instead of handwritten, your scores will be mailed sooner. If you would like to know your score on the same day that the report is mailed, you may use the TOEFL phone service. Using a touch-tone phone, call the TOEFL Office. You will hear prompts to enter your appointment number, your test date, your date of birth, and a credit card number. The fee to hear your scores by phone is $10 plus any long-distance charges that apply. To call toll-free from the United States or Canada, touch 1-888-TOEFL-44, which is 1-888-8633544. To call with long-distance charges from all other locations, touch 1-609-771-7267.

What can I do if I want to register a complaint? For the Computer-Based TOEFL, submit your complaint in writing to: CBT Administration Computer-Based Testing Network Group Educational Testing Service Mail Stop 16-2 Rosedale Road Princeton, NJ 08541 U.S.A.

26

QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS CONCERNING THE TOEFL

Occasionally, on the Paper-Based TOEFL, the computer will score an answer sheet incorrectly because of the way you have marked it. If you feel your score is much, much lower than you expected, you have a right to register a complaint. To do so, submit your complaint in writing to: CBT Administration Paper-Based Testing Educational Testing Service Mail Stop 16-2 Rosedale Road Princeton, NJ 08541 U.S.A.

May I cancel my scores? After you view your score on the screen, you will be given the option to report or cancel your scores for the Computer-Based TOEFL. If you choose to report your scores, you will then choose four institutions to receive your score report. All of this is arranged by responding to questions on the computer screen. If you do not want your Paper-Based TOEFL scores to be reported, you have a right to cancel them. To cancel your test scores, you must complete the score cancellation section of your TOEFL answer sheet, or you must write, e-mail, call, or fax TOEFL Services. If a signed request is received at TOEFL Services within seven days of the date of the test, your scores will not be reported.

How will the agencies or universities of my choice be informed of my score? Two to five weeks after the Computer-Based TOEFL testing, your official score reports will be forwarded directly to the agencies and/or universities that you designated on the information section on the computer screen the day of the examination. Personal copies of score reports are not accepted by institutions without confirmation by TOEFL Services. Scores more than two years old are not considered valid on the Computer-Based TOEFL. Four or five weeks after the Paper-Based TOEFL testing, your official score reports will be forwarded directly to the agencies and/or universities that you designated on an information section at the top of the TOEFL answer sheet the day of the examination. Personal copies of score reports are not accepted by institutions without confirmation by TOEFL Services. Scores more than two years old are not considered valid on the Paper-Based TOEFL.

How can I send additional reports? You can use a form in the TOEFL Information Bulletin to have official score reports for the ComputerBased TOEFL sent to institutions that were not listed on your computer screen. If you use the form, do not send a letter because correspondence will cause a delay. If you prefer, the TOEFL Office offers a telephone service for additional score reports. To use the service, you will need a touch-tone phone. Call 1-888-TOEFL-44 in the U.S. or 1-609-771-7267 from all other locations. For the Computer-Based TOEFL, you will be asked to provide your appointment confirmation number, a credit card number, your test date, and both the institution and department codes for the schools you wish to add to your score report list. You will use the numbers on your touch-tone phone to enter the numbers for all of the dates and codes. The fee for this service is $12 per call and $12 for each report. Official score reports will be mailed the same day as your telephone request.

SCORE REPORTS

27

You can use a form in the TOEFL Information Bulletin to have official score reports for the PaperBased TOEFL sent to institutions that were not listed on your answer sheet. If you use the form, do not send a letter because correspondence will cause a delay. You may also request official score reports by phone for the Paper-Based TOEFL. To use this service, you must have your admission ticket, a credit card, and a touch-tone phone. Use the same telephone numbers that appear above for the CBT. Call from six in the morning to ten at night, New York time. The fee for this service is a $12 charge to your credit card per call, a $12 charge per score report, plus a charge to your telephone bill for the longdistance call. Official score reports will be mailed three days after your telephone request.

May I take the TOEFL more than one time? You may not take the Computer-Based TOEFL more than once a month. For example, if you take the Computer-Based TOEFL in July, you must wait until August to take it again. You may take the Paper-Based TOEFL as many times as you wish in order to score to your satisfaction.

If I have already taken the TOEFL, how will the first score or scores affect my new score? TOEFL scores are considered valid for two years. If you have taken the TOEFL more than once but your first score report is dated more than two years ago, TOEFL Services will not report your first score. If you have taken the TOEFL more than once in the past two years, TOEFL Services will report the score for the test date you request on your score request form.

Is there a direct correspondence between proficiency in English and a good score on the TOEFL? There is not always a direct correspondence between proficiency in English and a good score on the TOEFL. Many students who are proficient in English are not proficient in how to approach the examination. That is why it is important to prepare by using this book.

What is the relationship between my score on the Model Tests and my score on the TOEFL?

t

Calculating an exact TOEFL score from a score that you might receive on a Model Test I not possible. This is so because the actual TOEFL examination has a wider variety of problems. The Model Tests have been especially designed to help you improve your total TOEFL score by improving your knowledge of the types of problems that most often appear on the TOEFL. These problem types are repeated throughout the Model Tests so that you will have practice in recognizing and answering them. By improving your ability to recognize and correctly answer those types of problems that most often appear on the TOEFL, you will improve your total TOEFL score.

Can I estimate my TOEFL score after I have prepared? To estimate your TOEFL score after you complete each of the Model Tests, use the Score Estimates in Chapter 11 of this book. After you complete the Computer Adaptive Test on the CD-ROM that supplements this book, you will see an estimate of your TOEFL score.

28

QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS CONCERNING THE TOEFL

Will I succeed on the TOEFL? You will receive from your study what you give to your study. The information is here. Now, it is up to you to devote the time and effort. Thousands of other students have succeeded by using Barron's How to Prepare for the TOEFL. You can be successful, too.

When will the Next Generation TOEFL be administered? The Next Generation TOEFL will be phased in. There will be three stages: 2003

2004

2005

The Speaking Section will be offered by telephone for practice. To purchase a practice test, visit the official TOEFL web site at www.toefl.org on the Internet. Click on the TAST (TOEFL Academic Speaking Test). The cost is $30 U.S. Several full-length forms of the Next Generation TOEFL will be made available on the Internet at no cost. Visit www.foefl.org and follow the directions to take advantage of this opportunity. The Next Generation TOEFL will replace the Computer-Based TOEFL (CBT) worldwide as the official TOEFL examination. In some remote areas, the Paper-Based TOEFL will be offered. A telephone version of the Speaking Section is planned to supplement the Paper-Based TOEFL.

Which language skills are tested on the Next Generation TOEFL? In general, the same language skills are tested in all TOEFL formats. Some differences occur in the number of sections and the types of questions used to test the language skills, however. Charts that outline the differences are included in the Quick Comparisons in the review chapters for each section of the TOEFL. The chart below shows the four sections on the Next Generation TOEFL. Section 1 Section 2 Section 3 Section 4

Listening Speaking Reading Writing

Does the Next Generation TOEFL have a Composition Section? The Next Generation TOEFL has a Writing Section that includes both independent writing and integrated writing. The independent writing is a response to a question that asks your opinion about a familiar topic. You have 30 minutes to complete the independent writing task. The integrated writing is a response to a question about the content of a short reading passage, a short lecture, or both. You have 20-30 minutes to complete the integrated writing task.

Does the Next Generation TOEFL have a Speaking Section? The Next Generation TOEFL has a Speaking Section that includes both independent speaking and integrated speaking. The independent speaking is a response to a question that asks for your opinion

THE NEXT GENERATION TOEFL

29

about a familiar topic. You have 15 seconds to prepare and 45 seconds to respond. The integrated writing is a response to a question about the content of a short reading passage, a short lecture, or both. You have 20-30 seconds to prepare and 60 seconds to respond. You may use notes while you speak.

Are all the Next Generation TOEFL tests the same length? All of the forms for the Next Generation TOEFL are about the same length. It is not an adaptive test.

How do I register for the Next Generation TOEFL? The lnformation Bulletin for the Next Generation TOEFL will have a registration form in it. Using the directions in the TOEFL lnformation Bulletin, fill out the form and mail it to the TOEFL Registration Office. Be sure to sign the form and include your registration fee. To register online, visit www.toefl.org.

What are the fees for the Next Generation TOEFL? The fees for the Next Generation TOEFL have not been determined. However, they will be about the same as those for the Computer-Based TOEFL.

Where are the test centers? The test centers for the Next Generation TOEFL will be announced on the TOEFL web site www.toefl.org. Many test centers are being planned at school sites throughout the world.

How long isthe testing session of the TOEFL? The total time for the testing session of the Next Generation TOEFL is about four hours.

How much time do I have to complete each of the sections? Work as rapidly as possible without compromising accuracy. Refer to page x to see the Timetable for the Next Generation TOEFL.

What kinds of questions are found on the TOEFL?

1.

The majority of the questions on the Next Generation TOEFL are multiple-choice. Some otAer types of questions are also on the Next Generation TOEFL. These questions will have special directions on the screen. You will have examples of them in Model Test 9.

How do I answer the test questions? When you are presented with a multiple-choice question on the Next Generation TOEFL, read the four possible answers on the screen, point the arrow, and click beside the answer that you choose. The oval will change from white to black. When you are presented with other types of questions, follow the directions on the screen. This is similar to the way that the test questions on the Computer-Based TOEFL are answered.

30

QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS CONCERNING THE TOEFL

May I make notes in the test book or on the scratch paper? You are allowed to take notes and use them to answer questions on the Next Generation TOEFL. You will be given paper for that purpose when you go into the test room.

May I change an answer? On the Listening Section of the Next Generation TOEFL, you can change your answer by clicking on the new answer. You can change your answer as many times as you wish until you click on the Confirm Answer button. When you click on Confirm Answer, you move to the next question, and you cannot go back to a previous question. On the Speaking Section, you will be cued with a beep to begin and end speaking. Everything that you say during the recording time will be submitted. You cannot change an answer. On the Reading Section, you can change your answer by clicking on the new answer. You can change your answer as many times as you wish, and you can go back to previous answers on the same reading passage. When you begin a new reading passage, you may not return to the previous passage to change answers. On the Writing Section, you can revise your essays as much as you wish unlil the clock indicates that no time is remaining. If you submit your essays before time is up, you cannot return to them. The CD-ROM that supplements this book will provide you with practice in choosing and changing answers on the computer screen.

If I am not sure of an answer, should I guess? If you are not sure of an answer, you should guess. The number of incorrect answers is not subtracted from your score. Your score is based on only the number of correct answers.

How should I guess? First, eliminate all of the possibilities that you know are NOT correct. Then, if you are almost sure of an answer, guess that one. If you have no idea of the correct answer for a question, choose one letter and use it for your "guess answer" throughout the entire examination. The "guess answer" is especially useful for finishing a section quickly. If the supervisor tells you to stop working on a section'before you have finished it, answer all the remaining questions with the "guess answer."

How is the Next Generation TOEFL scored? The Next Generation TOEFL will have section scores for each of the four sections. The range for each section score will be 030.Then the scores for the four sections will be added together. Although final scoring has not been determined, the total score range for the Next Generation TOEFL will probably be 0-1 20. Check the TOEFL web site at www.toefl.org for the latest information about the scoring scale.

How do I interpret my score? Admissions policies have not yet been decided by American universities. For the latest information about scoring, visit www.toefl.org on the Internet.

THE NEXT GENERATION TOEFL

31

How do scores on the Next Generation TOEFL compare with those on the Computer-Based TOEFL? A concordance table comparing the two tests is not yet available from the test developers. However, the TOEFL formats have been carefully calibrated so that scores on one format equate with scores on another format. If you score well on the Computer-Based TOEFL, for example, you should score well on the Next Generation TOEFL also.

When can I see my scores? After you complete your Next Generation TOEFL, you can view your estimated score on the screen. You will be able to see section scores for both Listening and Reading, but the Speaking and Writing Sections will require additional time to evaluate. The estimated score that you will see shows a total score range based on a very low score on the Speaking and Writing Sections and a very high score on the Speaking and Writing Sections. You will be entitled to five copies of your test results, including one personal copy for yourself and four official score reports. You will receive your copy about five weeks after you take the test, but you will have an idea of how you performed on the test after you see the estimate.

How can I know my scores sooner? You may be able to use the TOEFL phone service to receive your report on the same day that it is mailed. Watch the www.toefl.org web site for more information about this option.

May I take the TOEFL more than one time? You may take the Next Generation TOEFL as many times as you wish in order to score to your satisfaction. There may be a limit to the number of times that you may take the test in a one-month time period. More information about these limits will be published at a later date.

32

QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS CONCERNING THE TOEFL

Visit the TOEFL web site at www.toefl.orgor my web site at www.teflprep.com for the latest information about the TOEFL.

This web site helps students and professionals prepare for the Test of English as a Foreign Language (TOEFLm).You are invited to practice with the types of questions that appear on the TOEFL, visit the TEFL Prep Center Bookstore, and ask Dr. Pamela Sharpe questions about her books. The TEFL Prep Center web site also has information about scholarships and news about the TOEFL.

Welcome

The Practice Page-

The TEFL Center Bookstore

TOEFL News

Scholarship Opportunities

Dear Dr. Sharpe

If you are not seeing images or if the page is loading improperly, you may want to use these links to download Netscape Navigator or Internet Explorer, available at no cost. TOEFL is a registered trademark of Educational Testing Service. The TEFLPREP Center bears sole responsibility for this web site's content and is not connected with the Educational Testing Service.

REVIEW OF LISTENING

OVERVIEW OF THE LISTENING SECTION

35

QUICK COMPARISON4.ISTENING PAPER-BASED TOEFL, COMPUTER-BASED TOEFL, AND NEXT GENERATION TOEFL Paper-Based TOEFL

Computer-Based TOEFL

Next Generation TOEFL

Three types of questions are presented in three separate parts. Part A has short conversations; Part B has long conversations and class discussions; Part , C has mini-talks and lectures.

Three types of questions are presented in three sets. The first set has short conversations; the second set has longer conversations and class discussions; the third set has lectures.

Two types of questions are presented in six sets. The first sets each have a long conversation. The next sets each have one lecture.

The talks and lectures are about 2 minutes long.

The lectures are about 3 minutes long.

The lectures are about 5 minutes long.

Everyone taking the TOEFL answers the same questions.

The computer selects questions based on your level of language proficiency.

Everyone taking the same form of the TOEFL answers the same questions.

There are no pictures or visual cues.

Each short conversation begins with a picture to provide orientation. There are several pictures and visual cues with longer conversations and lectures.

Each conversation and lecture begins with a picture to proi~ide orientation. There are several pictures and visual cues with lectures.

You hear the questions, but they are not written out for you to read.

The questions are written out on the computer screen for you to read while you hear them.

The questions are written out on the computer screen for you to read while you hear them.

Everyone taking the TOEFL proceeds at the same pace. You cannot pause the tape.

You may control the pace by choosing when to begin the next conversation or lecture.

You may control the pace by choosing when to begin the next conversation or lecture.

The section is timed. At the end of the tape, you must have completed the section.

The section is timed. A clock on the screen shows the time remaining for you to complete the section.

The section is timed. A clock on the screen shows the time remaining for you to complete the section.

You may not replay any of the conversations or lectures.

You may not replay any of the conversations or lectures.

You may not replay any of the conversations or lectures.

All of the questions are multiplechoice.

Most of the questions are multiplechoice, but some of the questions have special directions.

Most of the questions are multiple-choice, but some of the questions have special directions.

Every question has only one answer.

Some of the questions have two or more answers.

Some of the questions have two or more answers.

36

REVIEW OF LISTENING

Paper-Based TOEFL

Computer-Based TOEFL

Next Generation TOEFL

You answer on a paper answer sheet, filling in ovals marked a,a,a,and @.

You click on the screen in the oval that corresponds to the answer you have chosen, or you follow the directions on the screen.

You click on the screen in the oval that corresponds to the answer you have chosen, or you follow the directions on the screen.

You can return to previous questions, erase, and change answers'on your answer sheet.

You cannot return to previous questions. You can change your answer before you click on Confirm Answer. After you click on Confirm Answer, you cannot go back.

You cannot return to previous questions. You can change your answer before you click on OK.After you click on OK,you cannot go back.

You may NOT take notes.

You may NOT take notes.

You may take notes while you listen to the conversations and lectures.

DIRECTIONS AND EXAMPLES FOR LISTENING QUESTIONS

37

The Listening Section of the TOEFL tests your ability to understand spoken English as it is heard in North America. This section is included in the Paper-Based TOEFL, the Computer-Based TOEFL, and the Next Generation TOEFL. The section is different for each of the three TOEFL formats-the PaperBased TOEFL, the Cornputer-Based TOEFL, and the Next Generation TOEFL.

PaperBased TOEFL (PBT) The directions for the Paper-Based TOEFL are reprinted with the permission of Educational Testing Service (ETS) from the official Information Bulletin for the Supplemental Paper-Based TOEFL. Section I

- listen in^ Comarehension 0

-

r

-

- - -

--

In this section of the leu. you will have an ownunity lo demonstrate your ability to understand conversations and talks in English. There are three pans to this section, with special directions for each pan Answer all the questionson the basis of what isstated or implied by thespeakcrs you hear. Do not take notes or write in your test book at any time. Do not turn the pages until you are told to do so.

Mans:In PartsA and B. you will hear wnversationsbetween two people. After each conversation. you will hear a question abwt the conversation. The wnversations and questions will not be repeated. After you hear a question. you will read the four possible answers in your test book and choose the best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the later of the answer you have chosen. Here is an excutlple. Sample Answer On the m r d i i , you wiU hear: ma@@ (woman) I don't like this painting very much.

(man) Neither do 1. (narrator) What does the man mean? In your test book, you will rCBd: (A) He doesn't like the painting either. (B) He doesn't know how to paint. (C) He doesn't have any paintings. @) He doesn't know what to do.

.

You learn from the conversation that neither the man nor the woman likes the painting. The best answer to the qw~tion."What does the man mean?" is (A). "He doesn't like the painting either." Therefore, the correct choice is (A). Directions: In Part C of this section you will hear several talks. Aner each talk, you will hearsome qucstions.Thc talks andquestionswill not be repeated. Alter you hear a question, you will read the four posible answers in your t estbook and choose the best answer. Then, on your answer she& find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Ifere is an example. On the recording, you will hear: (narrator) Listen to an instructor talk to his class about a televisionprogram (man) I'd like to tell you about M internsting Nprogram that 'Nbe shuwn this comng Thursday. h'll be on . a sericc from 9 to IOpm on C h O ~ e l 4 lr'spartof called "Mysteries of Human Biology." The subject uf the pmgrwn is the h u m brain - how it functions and how it can malfunction. Topics thar will be covered are dreams, memory, and depression. Thew topics are illusrrared with outstanding computer am'motion rhar makes the uplonorions easy tofollow. Make an eflorrto see this show. Since we've been studying the nervous system in class. I know you'llfind it very helpful.

Sample Answer

Samplr Question

You will hear: (narrator) What is the main purpose of the program?

@am@

In your test book you will rend: (A) To demonstrate the latest use of comourer graphics. (B) To discuss the poss~bilityof an economic depression. (C) To explain the workings of the brain. (D)To dramaIize a famous mystery story The best answer to the question. "What is the main purpose of the program?" is (C). '%explain the workingsof the brain."Therefore. the correct choice is (C). Sample Answer

Sample Question

You will hear:

@El00

(narrator) Why docs the speaker recommend watching the p m g m ?

In your tcst book, you will d: (A) It is required of all science majors. (B) It will never be shown again. (C) It can help viewers improve their memory skills. (D) It will help with course work. The best answer lo the question. "Why does the speaker recommend watching the pmgram?".is (D). "It will help with course work." Therefore. the correct cho~ceIS (D). Remember, you are not allowed to take notes or write In your test book.

38

REVIEW OF LISTENING

Computer-Based TOEFL (CBT) The directions for the Computer-Based TOEFL are reprinted with the permission of Educational Testing Service (ETS) from the official Information Bulletin for the Computer-Based TOEFL. The Listening section of the test measures the ability to understand conversations and talks in English. You will use headphones to listen to the conversations and talks. While you are listening, pictures of the speakers or other information will be presented on your computer screen. There are two parts to the Listening section, with special directions for each part. On the day of the test, the amount of time you will have to answer all the questions will appear on the computer screen. The time you spend listening to the test material will.not be counted. The listening material and questions about it will be presented only one time. You will not be allowed to take notes or have any paper at your computer. You will both see and hear the questions before the answer choices appear. You can take as much time as you need to select an answer; however, it will be to your advantage to answer the questions as quickly as possible. You may change your answer as many times as you want before you confirm it. After you have confirmed an answer, you will not be able to return to the question. Before you begin working on the Listening section, you will have an opportunity to adjust the volume of the sound. You will not be able to change the volume after you have started the test.

DIRECTIONS AND EXAMPLES FOR I-ISTENING QUESTIONS

39

QUESTION DIRECTIONS - Part A In Part A of the Listening section, you will hear short conversations between two people. In some of the conversations, each person speaks only once. In other conversations, one or both of the people speak more than once. Each conversation is followed by one question about it. Each question in this part has four answer choices. You should click on the best answer to each question. Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers.

Here is an example. On the computer screen, you will see:

On the recording, you will hear: (woman) Hey, where's your sociology book? (man) At home. Why carry it around when we're just going to be taking a test? (woman) Don't you remember? Professor Smith said we could use it during the test. (man) Oh, no! Well, I've still got an hour, right? I'm so glad I ran into you!

40

REVIEW OF LISTENING

You will then see and hear the question before the answer choices appear:

What will the man probably do next?

0Begin studying for the sociology test 0Explain the problem to his professor 0Go home to get his textbook 0Borrow the woman's book

To choose an answer, you will click on an oval. The oval next to that answer will darken. The correct answer is indicated on the next screen.

What will the man probably do next?

0Begin studying for the sociology test 0Explain the problem to his professor 0 Go home to get his textbook

0Borrow the woman's book

After you click on Next and Confirm Answer, the next conversation will be presented.

DIRECTIONS AND EXAMPLES FOR LISTENING QUESTIONS

41

QUESTION DIRECTIONS -Part B In Part B of the Listening section, you will hear several longer conversations and talks. Each conversation or talk is followed bfi several questions. The conversations, talks, and questions will not be repeated. The conversations and talks are about a variety of topics. You do not need special knowledge of the topics to answer the questions correctly. Rather, you should answer each question on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in the conversations or talks. For most of the questions, you will need to click on the best of four possible answers. Some questions will have special directions. The special directions will appear in a box on the computer screen. Here is an example of a conversation and some questions:

(narrator) Listen to part of a discussion in a marine biology class.

42

REVIEW OF LISTENING

(professor) A few years ago, our local government passed a number of strict environmental laws. As a result, Sunrise Beach looks nothing like it did ten years ago. The water is cleaner, and there's been a tremendous increase in all kinds of inarine life -which is why we're going there on Thursday. (woman) I don't know if I agree that the water quality has improved. I mean, I was out there last weekend, and it looked all brown. It didn't seem too clean to me. (professor) Actually, the color of the water doesn't always indicate whether it's polluted. The brown color you mentioned might be a result of pollution, or it can mean a kind of brown algae is growing there. It's called "devil's apron," and it actually serves as food for whales. (man) So when does the water look blue? (professor) Well, water that's completely unpolluted is actually colorless. But it often looks bluishgreen because the sunlight can penetrate deep down and that's the color that's reflected. (woman) But sometimes it looks really green. What's that about? (professor) OK, well, it's the same principle as with "devil's apron": the water might look green because of different types of green algae there - gulfweed, phytoplankton. You all should finish reading about algae and plankton before we go. In fact, those are the types of living things I'm going to ask you to be looking for when we're there. After the conversation, you will read:

Now get ready to answer the questions.

DIRECTIONS AND EXAMPLES FOR LISTENING QUESTIONS

Then, the first question will be presented:

What is the discussion mainly about?

0 The importance of protecting ocean environments 0 The reasons why ocean water appears to be different 0 The survival of whales in polluted water 0 The effect that colored ocean water has on algae

To choose an answer, you will click on an oval. The oval next to that answer will darken. The correct answer is indicated on the screen below.

What is the discussion mainly about?

0 The importance of protecting ocean environments 0 The reasons why ocean water appears to be different

0 The s u ~ i v aofl whales in polluted water 0 The effect that colored ocean water has on algae

43

44

REVIEW OF LISTENING

After you click on Next and Confirm Answer, the next question will be presented:

According to the professor, what can make ocean water look brown?

Cloudy Skies

To choose your answers, you will click on the squares. An "X" will appear in each square. The correct answer is indicated on the screen below.

According to the professor, what can make ocean water look brown?

Cloudy Skies

Sometimes the screen changes several times during a conversation or talk, as in the next example.

DIRECTIONS AND EXAMPLES FOR LISTENING QUESTIONS

Here is an example of a talk and some questions:

(narrator) Listen to part of a talk in a music theory class.

(professor) I'm sure if I asked you, you'd be able to tell me the common meaning of the word "interval."

45

46

REVIEW OF LISTENING

(professor) An interval is the period of time between two events. For example, buses might stop at a certain location every ten minutes-that is, at ten minute intervals. In the typical sense of the word, an interval is a period of time. But in music theory the word has a different meaning. A musical interval is the distance between two notes. So, if two notes are far apart, the musical interval between them is large. If two notes sound close together, the musical interval is small. The smallest musical interval is actually no distance at all between two notes. It's called "the unison," and that's the interval when two notes are exactly the same.

(professor) Today, I'd like to focus on a way of analyzing musical intervals by looking at the precise mathematical relationship that exists between musical notes. To do this, I've made some sounding boxes.

DIRECTIONS AND EXAMPLES FOR LISTENING QUESTIONS

47

(professor) As you can see, they're just boxes made of wood with strings wrapped around two nails on the top. Now, the only difference between these two sounding boxes is the length of the string. I made the strings two different lengths to show you how this affects the sound. In fact, if you measured the length of the two strings, you'd see that the long string is exactly twice the length of the short string. So, the ratio between the short string and the long string is one to two. That's a pretty basic ratio, mathematically, and it produces one of the most basic intervals in Western music-the octave. After the talk, you will read:

Now get ready to answer the questions.

48

REVIEW OF LISTENING

Then, the first question will be presented:

What does the professor mainly talk about?

0The use of musical notation 0A procedure for making a stringed instrument 0The creation of scales from musical intewals 0An explanation of musical intervals

To choose an answer, you will click on an oval. The oval next to that answer will darken. The correct answer is indicated on the screen below.

What does the professor mainly talk about?

0The use of musical notation 0A procedure for making a stringed instrument 0The creation of scales from musical intervals 0 An explanation of musical intewals

DIRECTIONS AND EXAMPLES FOR LISTENING QUESTIONS

49

After you click on Next and Confirm Answer, the next question will be presented:

Based on the professor's description, classify the following pairs of notes.

Use each sentence only once. Two notes sound close together. Two notes sound exactly the same. Two notes sound far apart.

To choose your answers, you will click on a sentence and then click on the space where it belongs. As you do this, each sentence will appear in the square you have selected. The correct answer is indicated on the screen below.

Based on the professor's description, classify the following pairs of notes.

Use each sentence only once. Two notes sound close together. Two notes sound exactly the same. Two notes sound far apart.

Two notes sound

Two notes sound close together.

Two notes sound exactly the same.

50

REVIEW OF LISTENING

After you click on Next and Confirm Answer, the next question will be presented: -

To choose your answer, you will click on the box. As you do this, the box will become highlighted. The correct answer is indicated on the screen below.

The solid lines on the charts below represent musical strings. What pair will produce the interval of one octave?

, , "

DIRECTIONS AND EXAMPLES FOR LISTENING QUESTIONS

51

Next Generation TOEFL There are usually 33 or 34 questiops in two parts on the Listening Section of the Next Generation TOEFL. 'The conversations, talks and lectures are presented only one time. You may take notes. The topics are all academic. The questions are either multiple-choice with four possible answer choices or computer-assisted with special directions on the screen. It takes 25 minutes to complete the questions. The time for the conversations, talks, and lectures is not included in the 25-minute estimate. There are two types of tasks included in the Listening Section: independent listening tasks and integrated listening tasks.

Independent Listening Directions: In the independent listening tasks, you will hear long conversations, class discussions, and lectures in an academic setting. They include natural pauses and they are presented at a normal rate for native speakers. You may take notes. After each conversation, discussion, or lecture, you will hear several questions. After every multiple-choice question, choose the best answer choice from four possible answers. After every computer-assisted question, follow the special directions on the screen to complete the answer.

Here is an example of a conversation and some questions:

Note: On the Next Generation TOEFL, the Answer Confirm button may appear as OK with a check ( d )mark.

52

REVIEW OF LISTENING

(narrator) Listen to part of a consultation in a professor's office.

Marty: Dr. Peters: Marty: Dr. Peters: Marty:* Dr. Peters:

Marty :

Dr. Peters: Marty: Dr. Peters: Marty: Dr. Peters:

Marty: Dr. Peters:

Marty: Dr. Peters: Marty: Dr. Peters:

Marty : Dr. Peters: Marty: Dr. Peters: Marty : Dr. Peters:

Do you have a minute, Dr. Peters? I mean, I know this isn't your office hour, but . . . could I ask you a question? Sure. Come on in, Marty. What's the problem? Well, I'm not sure. I got this letter, uh, it's a letter about my grant . . . and I don't understand it very well. Let's see it. . . . It's from the Financial Aid Office. . . . Are they going to cancel my student aid? I would hope not. Hmmn. Oh, I see. Here's what happened. You're only registered for three hours next semester. See here, there's a check mark in this box.. .the one that says "credit hours," then there's a number three beside it, so that must mean that you're not signed up for enough credit hours. . . . It looks like you only have one three-hour class next semester. That's true, but . . . but I plan to register for another class, I mean, during open registration. Um . . . I heard about a new environmental science course . . . it's supposed to be really good, and there's a field trip and everything, so uh I'm waiting for it. It hasn't been assigned a sequence number yet. . . but by open registration, well, I'm sure the number will be on the list, you know, the list they have printed out for classes that aren't in the schedule when the schedule comes out. Well, then, Merty, if that's the case, you don't have a problem. You're aware that the terms of your grant require you to take at least six hours a semester. I know, and I really thought that I had everything figured out, but, well, I've never gotten a letter before, and it kind of threw me. I think it's a new procedure. Don't worry about it. But uh, just be sure to sign up for at least three more hours before the beginning of the semester. Thanks, Dr. Peters. I'm really glad you were in your office today. Hmmn. Wait a minute, Marty. Um . . . do you have a back-up plan if the class . . . the environmental science doesn't have enough students.. .or, if it's closed by the time you try to register for it? Not really. Urn . . . maybe I should though . . . since I have to have the hours, I mean. Urnhum. I think you should go into registration with a course in mind to . . . as a second choice. That way, when you get to the head of the line, you know what to do, and . . . and you won't have to make a hasty decision. Right. That's a good idea. Actually, I was thinking about taking a geology course, but then I heard about the environmental science class. So then, you could find a geology class . . . a class that fits your schedule and works in your degree program? I'm sure I could. You don't want to take a class that wouldn't count toward graduation. But anyway, there are a lot of geology classes that . . . they are general studies classes, and you can use them for one of your basic science requirements. Right. Okay. Well, thanks. I'll check out the schedule and 1'11 find something, but . . . well, I hope that environmental science class works out for me. Me, too. And it should. That class isn't offered every year, so there should be enough interest. I'd get there early though, at open registration. I will. I'm going on the first day, early in the morning. Good. Well, I hope it all goes well for you. I think it will. Thanks so much . . . for explaining the letter and everything. No problem. Glad I could help.

DIRECTIONS AND EXAMPLES FOR LISTENING QUESTIONS

After the conversation, you will read:

N o w get ready to answer the questions.

i

53

54

REVIEW OF LISTENING

Then, the first question will be presented:

What is Marly's problem?

0He needs an appointment with the financial aid officer. 0He wants to apply for an extension of his financial aid. 0He has received a letter from the FinancialAid Office. 0He registered for a class that is not covered by financial aid.

To choose an answer, you will click on an oval. The oval next to that answer will darken. The correct answer is indicated on the screen below.

II

What is Marly's problem?

0He needs an appointment with the financial aid officer. 0He wants to apply for an extension of his financial aid. 0 He has received a letter from the FinancialAid Office.

0He registered for a class that is not covered by financial aid.

After you click on Next and Confirm Answer, the next question will be presented.

II

DIRECTIONS AND EXAMPLES FOR LISTENING QUESTIONS

55

In this example, you will listen to part of the conversation again. Then you will answer a question.

Why does the professor say this: "So then, you could find a geology class . . . a class that fits your schedule and works in your degree program."

0To encourage Marty to refine his plan. 0To show Marty that the plan is not good. 0To demonstrate approval for Marty's plan. 0To give Mar@an alternative plan.

To choose your answers, you will click on an oval. The oval next to the answer will darken. The correct answer is indicated on the screen below.

Why does the professor say this: "So then, you could find a geology class . . . a class that fits your schedule and works in your degree program."

0 To encourage Marty to refine his plan.

0To show Marty that the plan is not good. 0To demonstrate approval for Marty's plan. 0To give Marty an alternative plan.

56

REVIEW OF LISTENING

Sometimes the screen changes several times during a conversation or talk, as in the next example.

Here is an example of a talk and some questions:

(narrator) Listen to part of a talk in an English class.

DIRECTIONS AND EXAMPLES FOR LISTENING QUESTIONS

57

(professor) So today we'll talk about Earnest Hemingway. But before we actually read and discuss his works, I'd uh I'd like to look at his life . . . how the writing fits into it. Okay, first, we'll talk about the years he spent as a newspaper reporter because that experience was very influential uh for his writing career as a novelist. Um . . . after he graduated from high school, he chose not to go to college, accepting a job instead for the Kansas City Star: Later he would say that he learned how to write fiction in the newsroom, because the style required for the newspaper contained short sentences and active verbs, and uh he learned synthesis and clarity by writing news copy. So Hemingway was quoted as saying, "Those rules were the best rules 1 ever learned for the business of writing." Later, he worked for other newspapers, and . . . but the Toronto Daily Star offered him an overseas correspondent's assignment, and so he really began his writing career as an ambitious young American newspaperman in Paris after the First World War. His early books were published in Europe before they were released in the United States, but his first true novel The Sun Also Rises came out in 1926, and established him as a literary force in the United States. It was a fairly autobiographical novel about a World War I veteran who became a news correspondent in Paris after the war. So I'll mention here that the autobiographical nature of the novel was pretty typical of Hemingway. He always wrote from experience rather than from imagination. Although often he would write from the . . . the um . . . distance that time or another place might provide. Here's what I mean. He was living in Key West at the time that he wrote Farewell to Arms, and published it in 1929, but it was a reflective novel in which he recounted his adventures as an ambulance driver in Italy during the First World War. Then in For Whom the Bell Tolls, published in 1940, he retold his memories of the Spanish Civil War that took place in the 30s. Okay. He had a lot of short stories to his credit as well, in anthologies and magazines. But, you'll probably notice that there are eleven years between Farewell to Arms and For Whom the Bell Tolls, and those were difficult years in a way because the critics and the public expected every work to be a masterpiece, and they just weren't. Nevertheless, perhaps more than any other twentieth-century American writer, he was responsible for creating a style of literature. The Hemingway style was hard, economical, and powerfill. Remember the newspaper training. It lured the reader into using imagination in order to fill in the details.

Iceberg Theory

58

REVIEW OF LISTENING

(professor) In fact, Hemingway's theory of writing has been referred to as the iceberg theory. Because he thought it was important to omit the right thing from a story or a story line in a book. And he compared that with the structure of an iceberg where uh only uh I think it's 118 of the iceberg that can be-seen above the water, whereas the rest, the remaining 718 under the surface . . . that's what causes it to move. So, that's where the imagination comes in. The reader has to fill in the details under the surface.

So twelve more years o f . . . of experimentation really-short stories and slim novels that sold well but were never really approved of by critics, and then in 1952, Hemingway published The Old Man and the Sea. I am guessing that many of you have read it already. For those who haven't, it's a short, compelling tale of an old fisherman's struggle to haul in a giant marlin that he had caught in the Gulf of Mexico. It first appeared in Life magazine, selling over 5 million copies almost immediately. The next week, the publisher brought it out in hard cover, and it sold 50,000 copies before they could restock. And the critics liked it as much as the readers. What is the fascination with this rather small book? Well, some critics interpreted it as uh as the . . . allegory of man's struggle against old age; others . . . they interpreted it as man against the forces of nature. In any case, this book was probably the climax of Hemingway's career. Two years later, he was awarded the Nobel Prize for literature. He'd never received a major literary prize before, even though he had achieved commercial and critical success, and . . . the prize probably meant a great deal to him.

DIRECTIONS AND EXAMPLES FOR LISTENING QUESTIONS

After the talk, you will read:

Now get ready to answer the questions.

59

What theme did Hemingway use for many of his books?

0Romance 0Travel

To choose your answers, you will click on an oval. The oval next to the answer will darken. The correct answer is indicated on the screen below.

What theme did Hemingway use for many of his books?

0Romance

DIRECTIONS AND EXAMPLES FOR LISTENING QUESTIONS

61

After you click on Next and Confirm Answer, the next question will be presented.

Herningway used personal experience in his novels. Match the books with the events in the author's life that correspond to them.

Click on the title. Then click on the box where it belongs.

The Old Man and the Sea

The Sun Also Rises

For Whom the Bell Tolls

Farewell to Arms

--fAmbulance driver in ltaly

Newspaper correspondent in Paris

Fisherman in Florida along the Gulf

An eye-witness to the Spanish Civil War

To choose your answers, you will click on a title and then click on the space where it belongs. As you do this, each title will appear in the square you have selected. The correct answer is indicated on the screen below.

Hemlngway used personal experience In h ~ snovels Match the books wlth the events In the author's llfe that correspond to them

Cllck on the title. Then click on the box where it belongs.

The Old Man and the Sea

The Sun Also R~ses

For Whom the Bell Tolls

Farewell to Arms

Fisherman in Florida along the Gulf

The Old Man and the Sea

62

REVIEW OF LISTENING

After you click on Next and Confirm Answer, the next question will be presented:

Based on information in the lecture, indicate whether the statements below reflect Hemingway's style. For each sentence, click in the YES or NO column. YES NO

I

I

I

I

I

I The language is complex and sometimes difficult to interpret. I

I

I

The story encourages the readers to use their imaginations. The plot moves slowly to allow readers to absorb the details.

I The writer chooses to leave out certain Darts of the stow.

I

I

To choose your answer, you will click on the box. As you do this, an X will appear in the box. The correct answer is indicated on the screen below.

Based on information in the lecture, indicate whether the statements below reflect Hemingway's style. For each sentence, click in the YES or NO column. YES NO X

The story encourage* the readers to use their imaginations. The plot moves slowly to allow readers to absorb the details.

X

X

The writer chooses to leave out certain oafis of the stow.

I The language is complex and sometimes difficult to interpret.

(

(

X

I

Integrated 1istening Directions: In the integrated listening tasks, you will hear and respond to long conversations, class discussions, and lectures in an academic setting. The language includes natural pauses and is presented at a normal rate for native speakers. You may take notes. After each conversation, discussion, or lecture, you will hear a question that requires you to respond by speaking or writing. Integrated examples are shown in the Directions and Examples for Speaking in Chapter 4 and the Directions and Examples for Writing in Chapter 7.

REVIEW OF PROBLEMS AND QUESTIONS FOR THE LISTENING SECTION

63

'This Review can be used to prepare for both the Paper-Based TOEFL and the Computer-Based TOEFL. For the most part, the same types of problems are tested on both the Paper-BasedTOEFL and the Computer-Based TOEFL; however, questions on Informal Conversations and Tours are found only on the Paper-Based TOEFL and are not addressed in this book. Most of the questions on both the Paper-Based TOEFL and the Computer-Based TOEFL are multiple-choice. Some of the questions on the Computer-Based TOEFL are computer-assisted. The computer-assisted questions have special directions on the screen. Although the computer-assisted questions in this book are numbered, and the answer choices are lettered A, B, C, D, the same questions on the CD-ROM that accompanies the book are not numbered and lettered. You need the numbers and letters in the book to refer to the Answer Key, the Explanatory Answers, and the Transcript for the Listening section. On the CD-ROM, you can refer to other chapters by clicking on the screen. The questions on the CD-ROM that is available to supplement this book are like those on the Computer-Based TOEFL.

Problems like those in this Review of Listening frequently appear on Parts A, B, and C of the Listening section of the TOEFL.

Details

Academic Conversations

Idiomatic Expressions Suggestions Assumptions Class Discussions Predictions Implications Problems Topics

Academic Talks Lectures

64

REVIEW OF LISTENING

Types of Problems in Short Conversations

Details are specific facts stated in a conversation. In some short conversations, you will hear all of the information that you need to answer the problem correctly. You will IVOT need to draw conclusions. When you hear a conversation between two speakers, you must remember the details that were stated.

Man: Woman:

Front desk. How may Ihelp you? I'd like to arrange a wake-up call for tomorrow morning at seven o'clock, please.

Narrator: Answer:

When does the woman want to get up tomorrow? Seven o'clock in the morning.

Idiomatic expressions are words and phrases that are characteristic of a particular language with meanings that are usually different from the meanings of each of the words used alone. In some short conversations, you will hear idiomatic expressions, such as "to kill time," which means to wait. When you hear a conversation between two speakers, you must listen for the idiomatic expressions. You will be expected to recognize them and restate the idiom or identify the feelings or attitudes of the speaker. It will help you if you study a list of common idioms as part of your TOEFL preparation.

Man: Woman:

I'm single. I n fact, I've never been married. No kidding!

Narrator: Answer:

What does the woman mean? She is surprised by the man's statement.

REVIEW OF PROBLEMS AND QUESTIONS FOR THE I-ISTENING SECTION

65

A suggestion is a recommendation. In some short conversations, you will hear words and phrases that make a suggestion, such as "you should," "why don't you," or "why not." When you hear the words and phrases that introduce a suggestion, you must be able to recognize and remember what the speaker suggested, and who made the suggestion.

Woman: Man: Woman: Man:

a

Narrator: Answer:

Oh, no. Dr. Thompson's class i s closed. Already? Iknow. This is only the first day o f registration. Well, it's offered every term. Why don't you just take it next semester? What does the man suggest that the woman do? Wait until next semester to take Dr. Thompson's class.

Assumptions

An assumption is a statement accepted as true without proof or demonstration. In some short conversations, an assumption is proven false, and the speaker or speakers who had made the assumption express surprise. When you hear a conversation between two speakers, you must be able to recognize remarks that register surprise, and draw conclusions about the assumptions that the speaker may have made.

Woman: Man:

Lariy has an e-mail address?

Let's just e-mail our response to Larry instead of calling.

Narrator: Answer:

What had the man assumed about Larry? He would not have an e-mail address.

A prediction is a guess about the future based on evidence from the present. In some short conversations, you will be asked to make predictions about the future activities of the speakers involved.

66

REVIEW OF LISTENING

When you hear a conversation between two speakers, you must listen for evidence from which you may draw a logical conclusion about their future activities.

Man: Woman:

Could you please book me on the next flight out to Los Angeles? I'm sorry, sir. Continental doesn't fly into Los Angeles. Why don't you try Northern or Worldwide?

a

What will the man probably do? He will probably get a ticket for a flight on Northern or Worldwide Airlines.

Narrator: Answet:

Implications

Implied means suggested, but not stated. In many ways, implied conversations are like prediction conversations. In some short conversations, you will hear words and phrases or intonations that will suggest how the speakers felt, what kind of work or activity they were involved in, or where the conversation may have taken place. When you hear a conversation between two speakers, you must listen for information that will help you draw a conclusion about the situation.

Woman: Man:

Where's Anita? We were supposed to go to the library to study. Well, here is her coat, and her books are over there on the chair.

Narrator: Answer:

What does the man imply about Anita? Anita has not left for the library yet.

A problem is a situation that requires discussion or solution. In some short conversations, you will hear the speakers discuss a problem. When you hear a discussion between two speakers, you must be able to identify what the problem is. This may be more difficult because different aspects of the problem will also be included in the conversation.

Woman: Man:

It only takes two hours to get to New York, but you'll have a six-hour layover between flights. Maybe you could try routing me through Philadelphia or Boston instead.

REVIEW OF PROBLEMS AND QLlESTlONS FOR THE LISTENING SECTION

Narrator: Answer:

67

What is the man's problem? His flight connections are not very convenient.

Topics A topic is a main theme in a conversation or in a piece of writing.

In some short conversations, the speakers will discuss a particular topic. When you hear a conversation, you must be able to identify the main topic from among several secondary themes that support the topic.

Man: Woman:

Tell me about your trip to New York. It was great! We saw the Statue of Liberty and the Empire State Building and all of the tourist attractions the first day, then we saw the museums the second day and spent the rest of the time shopping and seeing shows.

Narrator: Answer:

What are the man and woman talking about? The woman's trip.

a

Types of Problems in Longer Conversations

Academic Conversations

Academic conversations are conversations between students and professors or other academic personnel on a college or university campus. In some longer conversations, you will hear an academic conversation between two speakers. When you hear a conversation, you must be able to summarize the main ideas. You may also be asked to recall important details.

Joe: Dr. Watkins: Joe: Dr. Watkins: Joe:

Dr. Watkins: Joe:

Hi, Dr. Watkins. Are you busy? Oh, hello, Joe. Come in. Thanks. You've probably graded our midterms. Just finished them. Frankly, I was surprised that you didn't do better on it. I know. I had two midterms on the same day, and I didn't organize my time very well. I spent too much time studying for the first one, and then I ran out of time to study for yours. I see. So I was wondering whether I could do a project for extra credit to bring my grade back up. I'm sure I have a B or even a C after that midterm, but before that I had a solid A.

68

REVIEW OF LISTENING

Dr. Watkins: Joe:

Joe:

Did you have anything in mind for your project? Well, I was thinking that I could develop a reading list, using the main topics from the midterm. And then, if the list looks okay to you, I could write a summary of each of the readings. But, if you don't like that idea, I'd be happy to do any project you would approve. Actually, that sounds like a good plan. In fact, I have a reading list that might work for you. Better yet. Good. If you do summaries for all of these articles, the extra points should put you back on track for an A. Thanks. Thanks a lot.

Question: Answer:

What is Joe's problem? His grade in the course is low because of his midterm.

Question: Answer:

Why didn't Joe do better on the midterm? He spent too much time studying for a midterm for another class.

Question: Answer:

What does Joe want to do? He wants to complete some additional assignments to earn extra points.

Question: Answer:

How does Professor Watkins respond to Joe's proposal? She is helpful.

Dr. Watkins: Joe: Dr. Watkins:

Types of Problems in Talks and Lectures

Class discussions are conversations that occur in classrooms. In some talks, you will hear a class discussion between two, three, or more speakers. When you hear a discussion, you must be able to summarize the important ideas. You will usually NOT be required to remember small details. It will help you to audit some college classes.

Miss Richards: Good morning. My name is Miss Richards, and I'll be your instructor for Career Education 100. Before we get started, I'd appreciate it if you would introduce yourselves and tell us a little bit about why you decided to take this class. Let's start here .... Bill: I'm Bill Jensen, and I'm a sophom*ore this term, but I still haven't decided what to major in. I hope that this class will help me. Miss Richards: Good, I hope so, too. Next. Patty: I'm Patty Davis, and I'm majoring in foreign languages, but I'm not sure what kind of job I can get after I graduate. Miss Richards: Are you a sophom*ore, too, Patty? Patty: No. I'm a senior. I wish I'd taken this class sooner, but I didn't know about it until this term.

REVIEW OF PROBLEMS AND QUESTIONS FOR THE LISTENING SECTION

69

Miss Richards: Didn't your advisor tell you about it? Patty: No. A friend of mine took it last year, and it helped her a lot. Miss Richards: How did you find out about the course, Bill? Bill: The same way Patty did. A friend of mine told me about it. Question: Answer:

In what class does this discussion take place? Career Education.

Question: Answer:

What are the two students talking about? They are introducing themselves.

Question: Answer:

Why is the woman taking the course? To help her find a job after graduation.

Question: Answer:

How did the students find out about the course? From friends who had taken it.

Academic talks are short talks that provide orientation to academic courses and procedures.

In some talks, you will hear academic talks on a variety of college and university topics. When you hear a talk, you must be able to summarize the main ideas. You must also be able to answer questions about important details. You will usually not be asked to remember minor details.

Since we'll be having our midterm exam next week, I thought I'd spend a few minutes talking with you about it. I realize that none of you has ever taken a class with me before, so you really don't know what to expect on one of my exams. First, let me remind you that I have included a very short description of the midterm on the syllabus that you received at the beginning of the semester. So you should read that. I also recommend that you organize and review your notes from all of our class sessions. I'm not saying that the book is unimportant, but the notes should help you to identify those topics that we covered in greatest detail. Then, you can go back to your book and reread the sections that deal with those topics. I also suggest that you take another look at the articles on reserve in the library. They have information in them that is not in the book, and although we didn't talk much about them in class, I do feel that they are important, so you can expect to see a few questions from the articles on the exam. Oh, yes, I almost forgot. Besides the twenty-five objective questions, there will be five essay questions, and you must choose three.

Question: Answer:

What does the speaker mainly discuss? The midterm exam.

70

REVIEW OF LISTENING

Question: Answer:

When will the students take the exam? Next week.

Question: Answer:

According to the professor, what should the students do to prepare? Study their notes, the articles on reserve, and appropriate sections of the book.

Question: Answer:

What is the format of the exam? Twenty-five objective questions and five essay questions.

Lectures are short talks that provide information about academic subjects. They are like short lectures that might be heard in a college classroom. In some talks, you will hear academic information in a short lecture. When you hear a lecture, you must be able to summarize the important ideas. You must also be able to answer questions that begin with the following words: who, what, when, where, why? It will help you to listen to documentary programs on radio and television. Programs on educational broadcasting networks are especially helpful. Listen carefully. Ask yourself questions to test your ability to remember the information.

The vast array of fruits presents a challenge for scientists who try to classify them, but they are usually classified into several types according to the origin of their development. Simple fruits are derived from flowers with just one pistil. Here is a diagram of a simple h i t . Some of the most obvious examples include cherries, peaches, and plums, but coconuts are also simple fruits.

simple

REVIEW OF PROBLEMS AND QUESTIONS FOR THE I-ISTENING SECTION

As you can see, the second classification of fruits, aggregate fruits, differs from simple fruits in that each flower has several pistils. Examples of aggregate h i t s are blackberries, raspberries, and strawberries. Now, let's look at a diagram of an aggregate fruit.

aggregate

The third type, a multiple fruit, develops from a group of flowers that grow in clusters. When the walls of the pistils thicken, then they bond and become incorporated into a single fruit. The classic example of this type is the pineapple, but figs are also classified as multiple fruits. Here is a diagram of a multiple fruit for comparison with the other two types.

multiple

Selective breeding creates new varieties of fruit, usually larger, juicier, and more appealing than the smaller natural fruits. However, even laboratory fruits seem to adhere to this general typology. Okay, I'm going to put some specimens into the lab for you to examine. There will be three trays-the first with samples of simple fruits, the second with samples of aggregate fruits, and the third with samples of multiple fruits. Please examine both the flowers and the h i t s themselves, and this is important-please look at the three trays in this order-simple fruits, aggregate fruits, and multiple fruits.

71

Multiple-Choice Questions Paper-Based TOEFL 1. What is the lecture mainly about? GD Laboratory assignments with fruit 'aSelective breeding of fruit O Basic classifications of fruit a A definition of fruit 2. Which of the fruits is an example of a multiple fruit? . GD Pineapples a Cherries O Strawberries a Blackberries 3. What distinguishes laboratory fruits from natural fruits? GD They do not taste as sweet as natural fruits. Laboratory fruits tend to be larger. O They are not classified the same way as natural fruits. Laboratory fruits are bred with more pistils.

4. Which of the following fruits will NOT be placed into the first tray in the lab? GD Coconuts a Plums O Peaches a Raspberries

Answer Sheet 1.GDcD.a

2.0aoa 3.CDOOaD 4.CDaoo

Computer-Based TOEFL What is the lecture mainly about? 0 Laboratory assignments with fruit 0 Selective breeding of fruit 0 Basic classifications of fruit 0A definition of fruit

a

Which of the fruits is an example of a multiple fruit? 0Pineapples 0Cherries 0Strawberries 0Blackberries

a

What distinguishes laboratory fruits from natural fruits? 0They do not taste as sweet as natural fruits. 0Laboratory fruits tend to be larger. 0They are not classified the same way as natural fruits. 0 Laboratory fruits are bred with more pistils.

a

Which of the following fruits will NOT be placed into the first tray in the lab? 0 Coconuts 0 Plums 0Peaches 0 Raspberries

a

TYPES OF QUESTIONS

73

Computer-Assisted Questions Two-Answer Questions. On some of the computer-assisted questions, you will be asked to select two answers. Both answers must be correct to receive credit for the question.

According to the professor, whlch of the fru~tsare classlf~edas s~mplefru~tsv

Click on two answers

[XJ Chernes Blackberr~es

[XI Peaches Apples

Visual Questions. On some of the computer-assisted questions, you will be asked to select a visual. The visual may be a picture, a drawing, or a diagram.

Select the drawing that best represents an aggregate fruit

Cfick'on"a&aMii.

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REVIEW OF LISTENING

Sequencing Questions. On some of the computer-assisted questions, you will be asked to sequence events in order. The events could be historical events or the steps in a scientific process. All answers must be sequenced correctly to receive credit for the question.

I

The professor briefly describes the way that students should examine the trays of fruit. Summarize the directions by putting the trays into order. Click on an answer. then click on the space whare it belongs. Use each answer only once. Multiple Fruits

Aggregate Fruits

simple fruits

I Simple fruits

Classification Questions. On some of the computer-assisted questions, you will be asked to classify information by organizing it in categories.

How should the following fruits be classified? Cfick on a sentence. then click on the space where it belbngs. Use each sentence only once.

.

Fruks wtth clusters of flowers.

of flowers.

COMPUTER TUTORIAL FOR THE LISTENING SECTION

75

In order to succeed on the Computer-Based TOEFL, you must understand the computer vocabulary used for the test, and you must be familiar with the icons on the computer screens that you will see on the test. First, review the vocabulary. Then study the computer screens in this Tutorial.

Testing Tools: Vocabulary, Icons, and Keys General Vocabulary for the Compute~BasedTOEFL Mouse

A small control with one or two buttons on it.

button

Mouse Pad A rectangular pad where you move the mouse. Arrow

A marker that shows you where you are moving on the computer screen. Move the mouse on the mouse pad to move the Arrow on the screen.

\

\

Click

To depress the button on the mouse is to Click the mouse. Click the mouse to make changes on the computer screen.

Icon

A small picture or a word or a phrase in a box. Move the arrow to the lcon and click on the lcon to tell the computer what to do.

Mouse Pad

Icons for the Computer-Based TOEFL Dismiss Directions

An example of an icon. Click on Dismiss Directions to tell the computer to remove the directions from the screen.

Oval

The icon beside the answers for the multiple-choice test questions. Move the arrow to the Oval and click on one of the Ovals to choose an answer.

Next

An example of an icon. To see the next question on the screen, click on Next first and then click on Confirm Answer.

Confirm Answer

An example of an icon. Click on Confirm Answer after you click on Next to see the next question on the screen. Remember, click on Next, Confirm Answer in that order.

Help

An example of an icon. Clickon the question mark to see a list of the icons and directions for the section.

Time

An icon of a clock in the bottom left corner of the screen. Click on the clock face to hide or show the time you have left to finish the section of the test you are working on. Five minutes before the end of each section of the test, the clock will appear automatically. Remember, the time appears in numbers at the top of the screen, not on the clock face. You cannot use the clock during the recording.

Specific Vocabulary for Section 1 Volume

One additional icon at the bottom of the screen in the Listening section. Click on Volume to go to a screen with an up arrow and a down arrow. Click on the up arrow to make the recording louder. Click on the down arrow to make the recording softer. Remember, you can change the volume while the speaker is giving directions, but not after the directions have concluded.

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REVIEW OF LISTENING

COMPUTER SCREENS FOR THE COMPUTER-BASED TOEFL

i 1 View the number

of the question on the screen 2 View the total number of questions in the section

another screen See the first question

time remaining

1

minutes and seconds Click again to remove the time

Click to go to another screen 2 Click on the directions for the section or the explanations of the icons

1

to mark a final answer and go to the next question

TIP: When the icons are black, you can click on them. When they are gray, they are not functioning. For example, Confirm Answer is gray until you click on Next. Then Confirm Answer is black. Remember the order to click on these two icons.

COMPUTER 'TUTORIAL FOR THE LISTENING SECTION

77

Computer Screens for Section 1

What does the woman mean? 0 She is surprised by the man's statement.

0She does not believe the man. 0She agrees with the man's statement. 0She does not understand the man.

Click to go to another screen with two arrows The oval will change from white to black

Click louder Click softer

1 Click on the oval beside the new answer The oval will change from white to black

The oval beside your first answer will change

TIP: Most of the questions on the Computer-Based TOEFL are multiple-choice. When you learn to move the arrow to the oval and click on the oval, you will be able to answer most of the questions.

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REVIEW OF LISTENING

You must enter an answer before you can leave

I TO CONTINUE THE TEST

previous question Answer the question

TIP: When you do not answer a question, or when you do not confirm your answer, this screen appears. You can spend a lot of time returning to questions that you have not answered. Don't skip questions in the Listening and Structure sections.

Simulations for Section 1 In order to prepare for the experience that you will have on the Computer-Based TOEFL, use the CD-ROM that supplements this book. Locate the Listening section on the Model Tests. The computer will simulate features of the Listening section on the Computer-Based TOEFL. These Model Tests are computer-assisted. As part of your study plan, be sure to review all of the questions in all of the Model Tests. Use the Explanatory Answers on the CD-ROM or in Chapter 10. Finally, take the Cumulative Model Test on the CD-ROM. This test is computer-adaptive, which means that the computer will select questions for you at your level of language proficiency. If you do not have a computer, you can simulate some of the features of the Computer-Based TOEFL. In Section 1 of Model Tests 1-8 in Chapter 8, the questions are written out for you to read while you listen to them. This is different from the Paper-Based TOEFL. Instead of the CD-ROM, you may be using either an audio compact disk or a cassette. Pause the tape or compact disk occasionally to give yourself more control of the time for each question. But be careful not to pause too often or you will not be able to complete all of the questions within the total time allowed for the section.

ADVICE FOR SUCCESS

79

The Next Generation TOEFL will include comprehension passages with natural speech at a rate that is normal for native speakers and a style that is appropriate for campus conversations and academic classroom interactions. Chapter 12 of this book is a Glossary of Campus Vocabulary to help you understand the campus context. The next edition of this book will include a new, revised Listening Chapter to provide you with strategies to comprehend natural speech in academic situations. Watch for Barron's How to Prepare for the TOEFL, 12th Edition to be published when the Next Generation TOEFL is introduced.

Be sure to adjust the volume before you begin. Before you begin the Listening section, you will have an opportunity to adjust the volume on your headset. Be sure to do it before you dismiss the directions and begin the test. After the test has begun, you may not adjust the volume. Do not let the visuals of people distract you from listening to the short conversations. We all respond in different ways to pictures. If you become too involved in looking at the pictures, you may pay less attention to the recording. For the most part, the pictures of people are for orientation to the short conversation. After you look briefly at the picture, give your full concentration to the conversation. If you take the Model Tests on the CD-ROM that may supplement this book, first practice by watching the screen during the short conversation and then by closing your eyes or looking away during the conversation. Find the best way for you to listen to this part of the test. Focus on the visuals of objects, art, specimens, maps, charts, and drawings in the talks. In general, the pictures of people are for orientation to the talks, whereas the visuals of objects, art, specimens, maps, charts, and drawings support the meaning of the talks. Do not focus on the pictures of people. Do focus on the other visuals that appear during the talks. They could reappear in a question. When you take the Model Tests, practice selective attention. Disregard the pictures of the lecturer and the students, and be alert to the other visuals. Be sure to read the question while you are hearing it. The questions will be shown on the screen while you are hearing them. If you find that it is to your advantage to close your eyes or look away during the short conversations, be sure to give your full attention to the screen again while the question is being asked. During the questions for longer conversations and talks, watch the screen carefully. By using the Model Tests, you will be able to develop a rhythm for interacting with the screen that is to your advantage.

This advice from Dr. Charles Swindell is framed on the wall of my office near my computer so that I can see it every day. I am happy to share it with you: ''The longer I live, the more I realize the impact of attitude on life. Attitude to me is more important than facts. It is more important than the past, than education, than money, than circ*mstances, than

80

REVIEW OF LISTENING

failures, than successes, than what other people think or say or do. It is more important than appearance, giftedness. or skit\-The remarkable thing is. we

have a choice every day regarding the attitude we

will embrace for that day. We cannot change our past . . . we cannot change the fact that people may act in a certain way. We cannot change the inevitable. The only thing we can do is play on the one string we have, and that is our attitude. I am convinced that life is 10 percent what happens to me and 90 percent how I react to it. And so it is with you. We are in charge of our attitudes." Henry Ford said it another way: "If you think you can or you think you can't, you are probably right."

PREVIEW OF SPEAKING

DIRECTIONS AND EXAMPLES FOR SPEAKING QLlESTlONS

83

QUICK COMPARISON-SPEAKING PAPER-BASED TOEFL, COMPUTER-BASED TOEFL, AND NEXT GENERATION TOEFL Paper-Based TOEFL

Computer-Based TOEFL

Next Generation TOEFL

There is NO speaking section.

There is NO speaking section.

Three types of questions are presented in six sets. The first two sets have a general question; other sets have questions about campus and academic topics. After you see and hear the general questions, you will have 15 seconds to prepare your answers and 45 seconds to record them. After you hear the campus and academic questions, you will have 20-30 seconds to prepare each answer and 60 seconds to record it.

The Speaking Section of the TOEFL tests your ability to speak in English about a variety of general and academic topics. The Speaking Section is not included in either the Paper-Based TOEFL or the Computer-Based TOEFL. It is included in the Next Generation TOEFL.

Paper-Based TOEFL (PBT) There is no Speaking Section on the current format of the Paper-Based TOEFL; however, there are plans for a telephone administration of speaking for future tests.

Computer-Based TOEFL (CBT) There is no Speaking Section on the current format of the Computer-Based TOEFL.

Next Generation TOEFL There are usually six questions in two parts on the Speaking Section of the Next Generation TOEFL. The questions are presented only one time. You may take notes. The topics are both general and academic. There are two types of tasks included in the Speaking Section: two independent speaking tasks and four integrated speaking tasks.

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PREVIEW OF SPEAKING

Independent Speaking Directions: In the independent speaking tasks, yoti will hear questions about familiar topics. You can use your personal experience and general knowledge to answer. After each question, you have 15 seconds to prepare your answer, and 45 seconds to record it. This is an example of an independent speaking question:

Question Some students join clubs and participate in campus activities. Other students spend all of their time study~ng.Which l~festyledo you think is better and why?

1

.

DIRECTIONS AND EXAMPLES FOR SPEAKING QUESTIONS

This is an example of an answer that receives an excellent rating: "When I go to college, I plan to join at least one club and participate in some of the activities. Being part of a club is a good way to make friends because . . . you have something in common, and. . . and if I can make friends with Americans, I'll probably improve my English. And activities are also a good way to relax. Studying all the time is uh stressful, and breaks are good for your health. Um . . . another reason to participate in activities is to demonstrate that you lead a balanced life. Some of the scholarship committees are looking for additional qualities, like leadership or community service as well as high grades, and when you have extra. . . extra-curricular activities on your application, it can help you get a scholarship or admission to graduate school. So I think students who study all the time . . . they miss out on a lot of opportunities for friendship and maybe even for a scholarship."

Checklist for Independent Speaking

Ef The talk answers the topic question.

d The point of view or position is clear. IdThe talk is direct and well-organized. IdThe sentences are logically connected to each other. Ef Details and examples support the main idea.

d The speaker expresses complete thoughts. IdThe meaning is easy for the listener to comprehend. IdA wide range of vocabulary is used. Ef There are only minor errors in grammar and idioms. IdThe talk is within a range of 125-1 50 words.

85

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PREVIEW OF SPEAKING

Integrated Speaking Directions: In the integrated speaking tasks, you will hear a lecture or read a passage about an academic topic, or you may listen to a lecture and read a related passage about an academic topic. You can take notes to prepare your answer. After each lecture or reading passage, you will hear a question that requires you to respond by speaking. You will have 20-30 seconds to prepare your answer, and 60 seconds to record it.

This is an example of a lecture: (professor) Okay. Let's continue our discussion about the way that psychologists gather information. First, let me remind you that many of us reject the idea that the social sciences can be studied with the same methods that scientists use in the natural or physical sciences. We believe that human behavior is contextualized, that is, that the behavior is intensely personal and subjective, and must always be studied within the natural context of the behavior, not in an artificial, experimental setting. So, that said, let me talk about a couple of methods that we use. One of the most useful methods is the interview. Unlike surveys that contain set answers from which the subject must select, the interview allows us to ask open-ended questions. This gives subjects the option of explaining why they hold a certain opinion and that can be very useful in understanding what motivates people and what would be likely to change their behaviors. Of course the problem is that it is extremely time consuming as compared with something more quantitative, like say, the survey. So, one way to interview a larger number of people more efficiently is to bring them together in a focus group. Focus groups are situations in which groups of people are brought together with a researcher to focus on a topic not only to articulate their opinions but also to explain them to each other. The researcher learns by listening to the group and draws conclusions from their interactions. The advantages are obvious-focus groups provide data from a group much more quickly and cost effectively than would be possible if each individual were interviewed separately, and they provide a way for researchers to follow up and clarify responses that may be stated in an ambiguous way.

This is an example of an integrated speaking question:

Question

Using the ideas and examples from the lecture, describe the methods that the professor presents, and explain why the methods used in natural sciences are not appropriate for psychology.

DIRECTIONS AND EXAMPLES FOR SPEAKING QLlESTlONS

Here is an example of an answer that receives an excellent rating:

"The methods used to study natural sciences can't be used to study social sciences because human behavior is best observed in a real context. In spite of . . . in spite of the fact that it is efficient and relatively . . . quick, a survey may be the least useful method since it uh . . . it includes a limited range of answers. On the other hand, interviews have open-ended questions, which uh which allow the subjects to explain the reasons why they answered in a certain way. But it takes a lot of time to interview an adequate sample. Focus groups allow researchers to . . . to gather data from a larger number of people and uh more quickly than individual interviews. In a focus group, the researcher listens to a group and makes conclusions about their opinions uh . . . following up and clarifying comments. The way subjects interact is also interesting to the researcher. So a focus group is probably the best option for gathering data."

Checklist for Integrated Speaking

$ The talk answers the topic question. $ There are only minor inaccuracies in the content. $ The talk is direct and well-organized. $ The sentences are logically connected to each other. $ Details and examples support the main idea. $ The speaker expresses complete thoughts. $ The meaning is easy for the listener to comprehend.

@fA wide range of vocabulary is used. $ The speaker paraphrases, using his or her own words. $ The speaker credits the lecturer with wording when necessary. $ There are only minor errors in grammar and idioms.

5d

The talk is within a range of 125-1 50 words

87

PREVIEW OF SPEAKING

88

l~itroducedas the TOEFL Academic Speaking Test (TAST) This preview can be used to prepare for the Next Generation TOEFL Speaking Section or the TOEFL Academic Speaking Test (TAST). The TAST was introduced in 2003 as a first version of the TOEFL speaking Section. Although minor modifications will be made in the second version of the TAST when it is included in the Next Generation TOEFL, this preview will be a good way to begin your preparation. The i ~ e xGeneration t TOEFL Speaking Section, like the TAST, will measure your ability to speak in English about a variety of general and academic topics. There are six questions. The total time is 20 minutes. Although the administration is currently by telephone, the plan is to design a Speaking Section on the Internet. There is no Speaking Section on the current format of the Paper-Based TOEFL or the ComputerBased TOEFL. However, there are plans for a telephone administration of speaking for future PaperBased administrations.

Questions like those in this Preview of Speaking appear on the TOEFL Academic Speaking Test, soon to be reintroduced as the Next Generation TOEFL Speaking Section. 1 2 3 4 5 6

Experiences Preferences Reports Examples Problems Summaries

Question 1-Experiences In this question, you will be asked to speak about a personal experience. This may be a place, a person, a possession, a situation, or an occasion. After you hear the question, you will make a choice from your experience and then explain why you made that choice. You will have 15 seconds to prepare and 45 seconds to speak.

Where would you like to study in the United States? Task Describe your experience Explain the reasons for your choice

TYPES OF QUESTIONS IN THE SPEAKING SECTION

89

Directions Read Question 1, the Example Notes, and the Example Answer. Use the Checklist to learn how to rate a speaking response for this type of question.

Washington, D.C. Family in area-advice, help International city-food, stores Tours-sites, trains to other cities Universities-excellent, accepted at one SCRIPTFOR

EXAMPLE ANSWER

I'd like to study at a university in Washington, D.C.because I have family in the area, and . . . and it would be nice to have them close by so I could visit them on holidays and in case I need advice or help. I've been to Washington several times, and I like it there. It's an international city, and there are restaurants and stores where I can buy food and other things from my country while uh I'm living abroad. And Washington is an exciting place. I've gbne on several tours, but I still have many places on my list of sites to see. Also, um . . . there are trains to New York and Florida so I could take advantage of my free time to see other cities in the United States. Um . . . as for the universities, there are several excellent schools in Washington, and . . . and I'd probably be accepted at one of them.

Checklist The talk answers the topic question. The point of view or position is clear. The talk is direct and well-organized. The sentences are logically connected to each other. Details and examples support the main idea. The speaker expresses complete thoughts. The meaning is easy for the listener to comprehend. A wide range of vocabulary is used. d There are only minor errors in grammar. V The talk is within a range of 125-1 50 words. V V V V V I/ V V

Question 2-Preferences In this question, you will be asked to speak about a personal preference. This may be a situation, an activity, or an event. After you hear the question, you will make a choice between two options presented and then explain why you made that choice. You will have 15 seconds to prepare and 45 seconds to speak.

Some students live in dormitories on campus. Other students live in apartments off campus. Which living situation do you think is better and why? Task Choose between two options Explain the reasons for your preference

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PREVIEW OF SPEAKING

Directions Read Question 2 and the Example Answer. Use the Checklist to learn how to rate a speaking response for this type of question.

Dormitories More interaction-practice English, study Less responsibility-meals, laundry, cleaning Better location-library, recreation, classroom buildings

A lot of my friends live off campus, but I think that living in a dormitory is a better situation uh especially for the first year at a new college. Dormitories are structured to provide opportunities for interaction and for making friends. As a foreign student, it would be an advantage to be in a dormitory to practice English with other residents and even to find study groups in the dormitory. And dorm students have . . . uh have less responsibility for meals, laundry, and . . . and cleaning since there are meal plans and services available as part of the fees. Besides, there's only one check to write, so the bookkeeping's minimal. And the dormitory offers an ideal location near the library and um all the recreational facilities and . . . and classroom buildings.

Checklist (/ (/

d d (/ (/

I/ d d (/

The talk answers the topic question. The point of view or position is clear. The talk is direct and well-organized. The sentences are logically connected to each other Details and examples support the main idea. The speaker expresses complete thoughts. The meaning is easy for the listener to comprehend. A wide range of vocabulary is used. There are only minor errors in grammar. The talk is within a range of 125-1 50 words.

Question %Reports In this question, you will be asked to listen to a speaker and read a short passage on the same topic. The topic usually involves a campus situation, and the speaker's opinion about it. After you hear the question, you will be asked to report the speaker's opinion and relate it to the reading passage. You will have 30 seconds to prepare and 60 seconds to speak.

The man expresses his opinion of the proposal in the announcement. Report his opinion and explain the reasons he gives for having that opinion. Task Summarize a situation and an opinion about it Explain the reason or the background Connect listening and reading passages

TYPES OF QUESTIONS IN THE SPEAKING SECTION

91

Directions Read the Announcement in 45 seconds. Then read the Conversation followed by the Example Answer. Use the Checklist to learn how to rate a speaking response for this type of question.

Reading Announcement concerning a proposal for a branch campus The university is soliciting state and local funding to build a branch campus on the west side of the city where the 1-19 expressway crosses the 201 loop. This location should provide convenient educational opportunities for students who live closer to the new campus as well as for those students who may choose to live on the west side once the campus is established. The city plan for the next ten years indicates that there will be major growth near the proposed site, including housing and shopping areas. By building a branch campus, some of the crowding on the main campus may be resolved.

Talk I understand that a branch campus on the city's west side would be convenient for students who live near the proposed site and might attract more local students, but I oppose the plan because it will redirect funds from the main campus where several classroom buildings need repair. Hanover Hall for one. And uh a lot of the equipment in the chemistry and physics labs should be replaced. In my lab classes, we don't do some of the experiments because uh because we don't have enough equipment. And we need more teachers on the main campus. I'd like to see the branch campus funding allocated for teachers' salaries in order to decrease the student-teacher ratios. Most of the freshman classes are huge, and there's very little interaction with professors. Um . . . a branch campus would be a good addition but not until some of the problems on the main campus have been taken care of.

Plans to open a branch campus Convenient for students near Might attract more students But will redirect funds from main campus Buildings need repair Equipment should be replaced More teachers-smaller classes

SCRIPT FOR EXAMPLE ANSWER The man concedes that the branch campus might be advantageous for students living close to the new location, but he's concerned that the funding for a branch campus will affect funding on main campus for . . . for important capital improvements such as classroom buildings that are in need of repair. Um . . . and equipment in the science labs is getting old, so it needs to be replaced. And he also points out that more teachers are needed for the main campus in order to reduce student-teacher ratios, which . . . which would improve the quality of the teaching and interaction in classes. So the man feels that more attention should be given to the main campus and funding should be allocated to improve the main campus before a branch campus is considered.

PREVIEW OF SPEAKING

92

Checklist The talk summarizes the situation and the opinion. The point of view or position is clear. The talk is direct and well-organized. The sentences are logically connected to each other Details and examples support the opinion. The speaker expresses complete thoughts. (/ The meaning is easy for the listener to comprehend. d A wide range of vocabulary is used. d There are only minor errors in grammar. d The talk is within a range of 125-1 50 words. d d d d d d

In this question, you will be asked to listen to a speaker and read a short passage on the same topic. The topic usually involves a general concept, and a specific example of it. Sometimes the speaker provides a contradictory point of view. After you hear the question, you will be asked to explain the example and relate it to the concept. You will have 30 seconds to prepare and 60 seconds to speak.

Explain the Wug experiment and why the results supported the basic theory of child language acquisition. Task

Explain how an example supports a concept Connect listening and reading passages Directions

Read the Textbook Passage in 45 seconds. Then read the Lecture followed by the Example Answer. Use the Checklist to learn how to rate a speaking response for this type of question. Reading

The telegraphic nature of early sentences in child language is a result of the omission of grammatical words such as the article the and auxiliary verbs is and are as well as word endings such as -ing, -ed, or -s. By the end of the third year, these grammatical forms begin to appear in the speech of most children. It is evident that a great deal of grammatical knowledge is required before these structures can be used correctly, and errors are commonly observed. The correction of grammatical errors is a feature of the speech of preschoolers four and five years old. The study of the errors in child language is interesting because it demonstrates when and how grammar is acquired.

TYPES OF QUESTIONS IN THE SPEAKING SECTION

93

Lecture English uses a system of about a dozen word endings to express grammatical meaning-the -ing for present time, -s for possession and plurality, and . . . the -edfor the past, to mention only a few. But uh how and when do children learn them? Well, in a classic study by Berko in the 1950s, investigators . . . they elicited a series of forms that required the target endings. For example, a picture was shown of a bird, and . . . and the investigator identified it by saying, "This is a Wug." Then the children were shown two similar birds urn to . . . to elicit the sentence, "There are two -." So . . . if the children completed the sentence by saying, "Wugs," then it was inferred that they had learned the -sending. Okay. Essential to the study was the use of nonsense words like "Wug" since the manipulation of the endings could have been supported by words that the children...had already heard. In any case, charts were developed to demonstrate the uh the gradual nature of grammatical acquisition. And the performance by children from 18 months to four years confirmed the basic theory of child language that the . . . the gradual reduction of grammatical errors . . . these are evidence of language acquisition.

Word endings--grammatical relationships -ed past -S plural Wug experiment-Berko nonsense words-not influenced by familiar manipulate endings data about development

In English, there are several important word endings that express grammatical relationships, for example, the -ed ending that signals that the speaker's talking about the past and the -s ending that means "more than one" uh when it's used at the end of a noun. So, when children learn English, they um . . . they make errors in these endings, but they gradually refine their use until they master them. In the Wug experiment, Berko developed nonsense words to get children to use endings . . . so . . . so the researchers could uh follow their development. It was important not to use real words because the children might have been influenced by a word they'd heard before. So this experiment provided data about the time it takes and the age when endings are learned. It supported the basic theory of child language that um . . . sorting out grammatical errors is a feature of the speech of . . . of four year olds and a stage in language acquisition.

Checklist d d d d d d d d d d d d

The talk relates an example to a concept. There are only minor inaccuracies in the content. The talk is direct and well-organized. The sentences are logically connected to each other. Details and examples support the talk. The speaker expresses complete thoughts. The meaning is easy for the listener to comprehend. A wide range of vocabulary is used. The speaker paraphrases, using his or her own words. The speaker credits the lecturer with wording. There are only minor errors in grammar. The talk is within a range of 125-1 50 words.

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PREVIEW OF SPEAKING

Question 5--Problems In this question, you will be asked to listen to a conversation and explain a problem and the solutions that are proposed. You will have 20 seconds to prepare and 60 seconds to speak.

Describe the woman's budgeting problem and the two suggestions that the man makes. What do you think the woman should do and why? Task Describe a problem and several recommendations Express an opinion about the better solution Propose an alternative solution Directions Read Question 5 and the Example Answer. Then read the Conversation. Use the Checklist to learn how to rate a speaking response for this type of question. Conversation Did your scholarship check come yet? Woman: Yeah, it came last week. Didn't yours? Man: Woman: No. That's the problem. And everything's due at the same time--tuition, my dorm fee, and let's not forget about books. I need about 400 dollars just for books. Man: Well, do you have any money left from last semester, in your checking account, I mean? Woman: Some, but not nearly enough. The check won't be here until the end of the month, and I won't get paid at work for two more weeks . . . I don't know what I'm going to do. Man: How about your credit card? Could you use that? Woman: Maybe, but I'm afraid I'll get the credit card bill before I get the scholarship check, then I'll be in worse trouble because of, you know, the interest rate for the credit card on top of everything else. Man: I see your point. Still, the check might come before the credit card bill. You might have to gamble, unless . . . Woman: I'm listening. Man: Well, unless you take out a student loan. A short-term loan. They have them set up at the Student Credit Union. Isn't that where you have your checking account? Woman: Umhum. Man: So you could take out a short-term loan and pay it off on the day that you get your check. It wouldn't cost that much for interest because it would probably be only a few weeks. That's what I'd do.

Problem-not enough money Books Tuition Dorm Solutions Use credit card Take out a student loan

TYPES OF QUESTIONS IN THE SPEAKING SECTION

95

SCRIPT FOR EXAMPLE ANSWER The woman doesn't have enough money for her expenses. Um . . . she has to pay tuition, and her dorm fee is due at the same time. Besides, she needs to buy books. So the problem is everything has to be paid now, and she won't get her scholarship check until the end of the month, and she won't be paid at work for two weeks. The man suggests that she use her credit card because she won't have to pay it off until the end of the month, but the problem is . . . the . . . the interest would be substantial if the scholarship check is delayed. The other idea-to take out a student loan-that seems better because the loan could be paid off on the day the check arrives instead of a fixed date, and it wouldn't cost much to get a short-term loan at the Student Credit Union. So . . . I support applying for a student loan.

Checklist (/

The talk summarizes the problem and recommendations.

I/ The speaker's point of view or position is clear.

The talk is direct and well-organized. The sentences are logically connected to each other. (/ Details and examples support the opinion. (/ The speaker expresses complete thoughts. (/ The meaning is easy for the listener to comprehend. (/ A wide range of vocabulary is used. (/ There are only minor errors in grammar. I/ The talk is within a range of 125-1 50 words. (/ (/

Question 6-41rmmaries In this question, you will be asked to give a summary of an academic lecture. You will have 20 seconds to prepare and 60 seconds to speak.

EXAMPLE QUESTION Using examples from the lecture, describe two general types of irrigation systems. Then explain the disadvantages of each type. Task Comprehend part of an academic lecture Summarize the main points

Directions Read Question 6, the Lecture, and the Example Answer. Use the Checklist to learn how to rate a speaking response for this type of question. Lecture Two types of irrigation methods that are used worldwide are mentioned in your book. Flood irrigation . . . that has been a method in use since ancient times . . . and we still use it today where water is cheap. Basically, canals connect a water supply like a river or a reservoir to the fields where ditches are constructed with valves uh valves that allow farmers to siphon water from the canal, sending it down through the ditches. So that way the field can be totally flooded, or smaller, narrow ditches along the rows can be filled with water to irrigate the crop. But, this method does have quite a few disadvantages. Like I said, it's contingent upon cheap water because it isn't very efficient, and the flooding isn't easy to control, I mean, the rows closer to the canal usually receive much more water, and of course, if the field isn't flat, then the water won't be evenly distributed. Not to mention the cost of building canals and ditches and maintaining the system. So let's consider the alternative-the sprinkler system. In this method of

96

PREVIEW OF SPEAKING

irrigation, it's easier to control the water and more efficient since the water is directed only on the plants. But, in hot climates, some of the water can evaporate in the air. Still, the main problem with the sprinklers is the expense for installation and maintenance because there's a very complicated pipe system and that usually involves a lot more repair and even replacement of parts, and of course, we have to factor in the labor costs in feasibility studies for sprinklers.

Flood Not efficient Difficult to control-flat fields Initial expense to build canals, ditches Requires maintenance Sprinkler Complicated pipe system Expensive to install, maintain-repair, Labor cost

replace

SCRIPT FOR EXAMPLE ANSWER Two methods of irrigation were discussed in the lecture. First, flood irrigation. It involves the release of water into canals and drainage ditches that flow into the fields. The disadvantages of the flood method . . . um . . . well, it isn't very efficient since more water is used in flooding than the crops actually.. .uh, need, and also it isn't easy to control. Another problem is the initial expense for the construction of the canals and the connecting ditches as well as . . . as maintenance. And besides that, if the fields aren't flat, the water doesn't-l mean, it isn't distributed evenly. The second method is sprinkler irrigation which uses less water and provides better control, but there is some evaporation, and the pipe system's complicated and can be expensive to install and maintain, and there's usually a lot more labor cost because the equipment must be repaired and replaced more often than a canal system.

Checklist (/ (/

I/ (/

r/ d

d (/ (/ (/

(/

(/

The talk summarizes a short lecture. There are only minor inaccuracies in the content. The talk is direct and well-organized. The sentences are logically connected to each other. Details and examples support the main idea. The speaker expresses complete thoughts. The meaning is easy for the listener to comprehend. A wide range of vocabulary is used. The speaker paraphrases, using his or her own words. The speaker credits the lecturer with wording. There are only minor errors in grammar. The talk is within a range of 125-1 50 words.

COMPUTER TUTORIAL FOR THE SPEAKING SECTION

The Speaking Section of the Next Generation TOEFL is being introduced as a telephone test. It is called the TAST (TOEFL Academic Speaking Test). Later, the TAST will be integrated into the Next Generation TOEFL as the Speaking Section, and it will be administered on the Internet. For now, dial the telephone number that you receive when you register. Then, folloLv the directions that you hear. You will be told when to prepare each answer and when to begin speaking. It is important to speak directly into the telephone. Speak up. If your voice is too soft, the rater will not be able to grade your answers.

97

98

PREVIEW OF SPEAKING

Become familiar with the types of questions you will be asked. If you are listening to the kinds of questions that you expect to hear, you will be more prepared to organize your answers. That is why it is so important to study using the review section in this book, and to practice using the model test. Develop a sense of timing for the short speaking answers. You will be speaking for only 45-60 seconds, and that isn't very long to develop a complete answer. When you are answering the practice questions in this book, set a kitchen timer for 60 seconds and begin speaking. When the bell rings, stop. Did you complete your thought, or did you have more to say? Always use the timer when you are practicing. Soon you will develop a sense of the timing for the questions, and you will know how much you can say in a short answer. Practice using the telephone to speak. Call a friend to practice some of the speaking questions by phone. Speak directly into the phone. Ask your friend to confirm that you are speaking at a good volume to be heard clearly. Maintain a positive attitude toward the experience. It is natural to be a little anxious about speaking in a second language, but it is important not to become negative and frightened. Negative thoughts can interfere with your concentration, and you may not hear the questions correctly. Take some deep breaths before each question, and say this in your mind, "I am a good speaker. I am ready to speak." If you begin to have negative thoughts during the test, take another deep breath, and think "confidence" as you breathe in. Focus on listening to the questions. Focus on taking notes. Choose a quiet place to take your test. Choose a room with a telephone where you can be alone. Close the door. Make a sign for the door asking friends and family not to enter while you are taking your test. Turn off pagers and cell phones. Eliminate other distracting noises. If you are disturbed while you are taking your test, you will not hear the questions, and you will lose valuable preparation time. Gather the materials that you need for the test. Always have an extra pencil in case you need it. Then, clear the desk or table that you will use for taking notes. If you see only the questions and your notes, you will focus more easily.

Do you talk to yourself? Of course you do. Maybe not aloud, but all of us have mental conversations with ourselves. So the question is how do you talk to yourself? Negative Talk

Positive Talk

I can't study all of this. My English is poor. I won't get a good score. If I fail, I will be so ashamed.

I am studying every day. My English is improving. I will do my best. If I need a higher score, I can try again.

How would you talk to good friends to encourage and support them? Be a good friend to yourself. When negative talk comes to mind, substitute positive talk. Encourage yourself to learn from mistakes.

REVIEW OF STRUCTURE

OVERVIEW OF THE STRUCTURE SECTION

101

QUICK COMPARISOH-SfRUCTURE PAPER-BASED TOEFL, COMPUTER-BASED TOEFL, AND NEXT GENERATION TOEFL Paper-Based TOEFL

Computer-Based TOEFL

Next Generation TOEFL

Two types of questions are presented in separate parts. Part A has incomplete sentences, and Part B has sentences with underlined words and phrases.

Two types of questions are presented at random in one continuous section. You may see two incomplete sentences, one sentence with underlined words and phrases, another incomplete sentence, and so fgrth.

There is NO Structure Section.

All of the questions are multiple-choice.

All of the questions are multiple-choice.

Everyone taking the TOEFL answers the same questions.

The computer will select questions based on your level of proficiency.

Every question has only one answer.

Every question has only one answer.

You have twenty-five minutes to complete the section.

You may control the pace by choosing when to begin the next question, but the section is timed. A clock on the screen shows the time remaining for you to complete the section.

You answer on a paper Answer Sheet, filling in a,a, ovals marked a, and a.

You click on the screen either in the oval or on the underlined word or phrase.

You can return to previous questions, erase, and change answers on your Answer Sheet.

You cannot return to previous questions. You can change your answer before you click on Confirm Answer. After you click on Confirm Answer, you will see the next question. You cannot go back.

The score on the Structure Section is not combined with the score on the essay in the Test of Written English (TWE).

The score on the Structure Section is combined with the score on the essay in the Writing Section.

102

REVIEW OF STRUCTURE

The Structure Section of the TOEFL tests your ability to recognize standard written English as it is used in North America. The Structure Section is included in the Paper-BasedTOEFL and the ComputerBased TOEFL, but it is not included as a separate section in the Next Generation TOEFL.

Paper-Based TOEFL (PBT) The directions for the Paper-Based TOEFL are reprinted with the permission of Educational Testing Service (ETS) from the official Information Bulletin for the Supplemental Paper-Based TOEFL.

-

Section 2 Structure and Written Expression This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is appropriate for standard written English. There are two types of questions in this section, with special directions for each type.

Structure Directions: These questions are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you will see four words or phrases, marked (A), (B). (C), and (D). Choose the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Look at the following examples:

Example I

Sample Answer

Geysers have often been compared to volcanoes - - - - - they both emit hot liquids from below the Earth's surface. (A) due to (B) because (C) in spice of (D) regardless of

@0 @ @

The sentence should read. "Geysers have often been compared to volcanoes because they both emit hot liquids from below the Earth's surface." Therefore, you should choose answer (B).

Example I1

Sample Answer

During the early period of ocean navigation,

@@Om

----- any need for sophisticated instmenls and techniques. (A) so that hardly (B) where there hardly was (C) hardly was (D) there was hardly

The sentence should read, "During the early period of ocean navigation, there was hardly any need for sophisticated instruments and techniques." Therefore, you should choose answer (D).

Written Expression Directions: In these questions, each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. The four underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct. Then. on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Look at the following examples:

OVERVIEW OF THE STRUCTURE SECTION Example I

Sample Answer

Guppies are sometimes

m@@@

rainbow fish because A B C of the males' brightcolors. D

103

The sentence should read, "Guppies are sometimes called rainbow fish because of the males' bright colors." Therefore, you should choose answer (A). Example 11

Sample Answer

Serving several term in Congress. Shirley A B Chisholm became an important United States C politician.

@-@a

D The sentence should read. "Serving several terms in Congress, Shirley Chisholm became an important United States politician.'' Therefore, you should choose answer (B).

Computer-Based TOEFL The directions for the Computer-Based TOEFL are reprinted with the permission of Educational Testing Service (ETS) from the official Information Bulletin for the Computer-Based TOEFL.

This section measures the ability to recognize language that is appropriate for standard written Eoglish. There are two types of questions in this section. In the first type of question, there are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence, there are four words or phrases. You will choose the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence.

Here is an example.

The columbine flower, all of the United States, can be raised from seed in almost any garden.

0native 0how native is 0how native is it 0is native

104

REVIEW OF STRUCTURE

Clicking on a choice darkens the oval. The correct answer is indicated on the screen below.

The columbine flower. to nearly all of the United States, can be raised from seed in almost any garden. 0 native 0how native is 0how native is it 0is native

After you click on Next and Confirm Answer, the next question will be presented. The second type of question has four underlined words or phrases. You will choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

Here is an example:

or the sentence to be

One of the

difficult problems in understanding

sleep is determiningwhat the functions of sleep E.

REVIEW OF PROBLEMS AND QUESTIONS FOR THE STRUCTURE SECTION

105

Clicking on an underlined word or phrase will darken it. The correct answer is indicated on the screen below. ord or phrase that must be changed

One of the

difficult problems in understanding

sleep is determining what the functions of sleep

The sentence should read: One of the most difficult problems in understanding sleep is determining what the functions of sleep are. After you click on Next and Confirm Answer, the next question will be presented.

Next Generation TOEFL There is no Structure Section in the Next Generation TOEFL. Structure is scored on the rating scale for bo!h the Speaking Section and the Writing Section.

This Review can be used to prepare for both the Paper-Based TOEFL and the Computer-Based TOEFL. For the most part, the same types of problems are tested on both the Paper-BasedTOEFL and the Computer-Based TOEFL. All of the questions on both the Paper-Based TOEFL and the ComputerBased TOEFL are multiple-choice. Computer-assisted questions have special directions.

Strategies and Symbols for Review Strategjes How will this Review of Structure help you? It won't teach you every rule of English grammar, but it will provide you with a review of the problems in structure and written expression that are most commonly tested on the TOEFL. Use this review to study and to check your progress. Follow three easy steps for each problem. 1. Review the generalization. First, read the explanation and study the word order in the chart. Then, close your eyes, and try to see the chart in your mind.

106

REVIEW OF STRUCTURE

2 . Study the examples. Focus on the examples. First, read them silently, noting the difference be-

tween the correct and incorrect sentences. Then, read the underlined parts of the correct sentences aloud. 3. Check your progress. First, complete the exercise. Each exercise has two questions-ne similar to Part A and the other similar to Part B on the Structure and Written Expression section of the TOEFL. Then, check your answers, using the Answer Key in Chapter 9 of this book. If you are studying in an English program, use this review with your grammar book. After your teacher presents a grammar rule in class, find it in the table of contents of this review (see pages 107-109). Refer to the generalization, study the examples, and check your progress by completing the exercise. When you go to your next grammar class, you will be more prepared. When you go to your TOEFL examination, you will be more confident. With preparation, you can succeed in school and on the TOEFL.

Symbols In order for you to use the patterns and rules of style in this review, you must understand five kinds of symbols. Abbreviations. An abbreviation is a shortened form. In the patterns, five abbreviations, or shortened forms, are used: S is an abbreviation for Subject, Vfor Verb, V Ph for Verb Phrase, C for Complement, and M for Modifier. Small Letters. Small letters are lowercase letters. In the patterns, a verb written in small (lowercase) letters may not change form. For example, the verb have may not change to has or had when it is written in small letters. Capital Letters. Capital letters are uppercase letters. In the patterns, a verb written in capital (uppercase) letters may change form. For example, the verb HAVE may remain as have, or may change to has or had, depending upon agreement with the subject and choice of tense. Parentheses. Parentheses are curved lines uqed as punctuation marks. The following punctuation ). In the patterns, the words in parentheses give specific information about marks are parentheses: ( the abbreviation or word that precedes them. For example, V (present) means that the verb in the pattern must be a present tense verb. N (count) means that the noun in the pattern must be a countable noun. Alternatives. Alternatives are different ways to express the same idea. In the patterns, alternatives are written in a column. For example, in the following pattern, there are three alternatives:

had would have could have

participle

The alternatives are had, would have, and could have. Any one of the alternatives may be used with the participle. All three alternatives are correct.

TYPES OF PROBLEMS

107

Patterns and rules of style like those in this Review of structure frequently appear on Section 2 of the TOEFL. The emphasis that is placed on various patterns and style problems changes from year to year on the TOEFL. Research indicates that those problems shown in bold print in the reference list below are most frequently tested on current examinations. To prepare for Section 2 of the TOEFL, study the problems in this chapter. Give special attention to the problems in bold print.

Passives-Word Order 0 Belief and Knowledge-Anticipatory Missing Main Verb

I

Verbs that Require an Infinitive in the Complement

-

7

Problems with HAVE + Participle

It

--

Predictions- Will Have + Participle

-

Verbs that Require an -ing Form in the Complement Verb Phrases that Require an i n g Form in the Complement

7

.

Missing Auxiliary V e r b A c t i v e Missing Auxiliary VerbPassive

Irregular Past Forms '

Object Pronouns after Prepositions

Problemwith Conditlonals

Relative Pronouns that Refer to Persons and Things

Factual Conditionals-Absolute, Scientific Results Factual Conditionals-Probable Results for the Future Contrary-to-Fact Conditionals-Change Conditions Unless

in

Count Nouns Noncount Nouns Nouns with Count and Noncount Meanings Noncount Nouns that Are Count Nouns in Other Languages

Importance-Subjunctive Verbs

-

Importance-Impersonal Expressions C

-Problems with lnii,nitives

'

purpose-infinitives

I

Singular and Plural Expressions of Noncount Nouns Infinitive and ing Subjects Nominal That Clause

108

REVIEW OF STRUCTURE

-Ir+-=iw-PP

--

,

.

Addition-Besides

~ r o l ; l e z w i t hDeterminer:

Cause-Because of and Because Noncount Nouns with Qualifying PhrasesThe -

NOMeaning Not Any

Almost All of the and Most of the I-

TG6&E&itli~okira'ti~-s~

-e-~^r*r--C-IZC----.

Correlative Conjunctions-lnclusives not only. .but also

Problems with Other Adjectives

.

Nouns that Function as Adjectives Hyphenated Adjectives

*pro bJl Future Result- When

Cause-and-Result-SO

Indirect Questions

Exact Similarity-the Same as and the Same General Similarity-Like and Alike General Difference-to Differ from Comparative Estimate-Multiple

Numbers

Comparative Estimates-More Less Than

Than and

Negative Emphasis Duration-Forand

Since

Generalization-As a Whole and Wholly

Comparative Estimates-As Many As Degrees of Comparison-Superlative Adjectives Degrees of Comparison-Irregular Adjectives Double Comparatives Illogical Comparatives-General Similarity and Difference

Sentences and Clauses

TYPES OF PROBLEMS

Point of View-Verbs

Redundancy-Unnecessary

Point of View-Verbs

and Adverbs

Redundancy-Repetition Same Meaning

Phrases

of Words with the

Redundancy-Repetition of Noun by Pronoun Agreement-Modified

Subject and Verb

Agreement-Subject Verb

with Appositive and

Agreement-Verb-Subject

Order

Agreement-Noun and Pronoun Agreement-Subject Pronouns

and Possessive

Transitive and Intransitive Verbs-Raise and Rise Transitive and Intransitive Verbs-Lay and Lie Transitive and lntransitive Verbs-Set and Sit Similar Verbs-Make

and Do

Prepositional Idioms Verbal Modifiers--ing and -ed Forms Verbal Modifiers-Infinitives of Purpose to Introduce Instructions

Parallel Structure-In

a Series

Parallel Structure-After Conjunctions

Correlative

parts of speech

109

110

REVIEW OF STRUCTURE

Patterns are the parts of a sentence. In some books, patterns are called structures. In patterns, the words have the same order most of the time. Some of the most important patterns are summarized in this review section. Remember, the generalizations in the charts and explanations for each pattern refer to the structure in the examples. There may be similar structures for which these geneqalizations are not appropriate.

A verb is a word or phrase that expresses existence, action, or experience. There are two kinds of verbs in English. They are the main verb and the auxiliary verb. In some grammar books, the auxiliary verb is called a helping verb because it is used with a main verb. Every verb in English can be described by the following formula:

VERB = tense + (modal) + (have + participle) + (be + -ing) + verb word

Each of the parts of this formula will be summarized in one or more of the problems in this review. Don't spend time studying it now. Just refer to it as you progress through this review section.

MS WIT:

In English, a sentence must have a main verb. A sentence may or may not have an auxiliary verb.

Remember that every English sentence must have a subject and a main verb.

Avoid using an -ingfon, an infinitive, an auxiliary verb, or another part of speech instead of a main verb.

INCORRECT: The prettiest girl i n our class with long brown hair and brown eyes. CORRECT: The prettiest girl in our class has long brown hair and brown eyes.

In my opinion, too soon to make a decision. In my opinion, it too 'soon to make a decision. Do you know whether the movie that starts at seven? Do you know whether the movie that starts at seven k good? or Do you know whether the movie starts at seven?

Sam almost always a lot of fun. Sam k almost always a lot of fun. The book that I lent you having a good bibliography. The book that I lent you has a good bibliography.

Part A: Choose the correct answer. Arizona (A) has (B) being (C) having (D) with

a very dry climate.

Part B: Choose the incorrect word or phrase and correct it. Venomous snakes with modified teeth connected to poison glands in which the venom is secreted and (A) (B) (C) (Dl stored.

a

Verbs that Require an Infinitive in the Complement

Remember that the following verbs require an infinitive for a verb in the complement. agree appear arrange ask claim consent

decide demand deserve expect fail forget

S

V

We

had planned

hesitate hope intend learn manage mean

need offer plan prepare pretend promise

tive) to leave

refuse seem tend threaten wait want

M day before yesterday

Avoid using an -ing form after the verbs listed. Avoid using a verb word after want.

112

REVIEW OF STRUCTURE

INCORRECT:He wanted speak with Mr. Brown. CORRECT:He wanted to speak with Mr. Brown. INCORRECT:We demand knowing our status. CORRECT: We demand to know our status. INCORRECT:I intend the inform you that we cannot approve your application. CORRECT:I intend to inform you that we cannot approve your application.

INCOPRECT: They didn't plan buying a car. CORRECT: They didn't plan to buy a car. INCORRECT:The weather tends improving in May. CORRECT:The weather _tendsto improve in May.

Part A: Choose the correct answer. One of the least effective ways of storing information is learning (A) how repeat (B) repeating (C) to repeat (D) repeat

it.

Part B: Choose the incorrect word or phrase and correct it. Representative democracy seemed evolve simultaneously during the eighteenth and nineteenth cen(A) (B) (C> turies in Britain, Europe, and the United States.

a

(D)

Verbs that Require an -ing Form in the Complement

Remember that the following verbs require an -ing form for a verb in the complement: admit appreciate a void complete consider . delay deny discuss

enjoy finish keep mention miss postpone practice quit

recall recommend regret risk stop suggest tolerate understand

-

-

s

v

He

enjoys

.

G-inpj

M

traveling

by plane

Avoid using an infinitive after the verbs listed. Forbid may be used with either an infinitive or an -ing complement, but forbid from is not idiomatic.

INCORRECT:She is considering not to go. CORRECT: She is considering not going. INCORRECT:We enjoyed talk with your friend. CORRECT: We enioyed talking with your friend. INCORRECT:Hank completed the writing his thesis this summer. CORRECT: Hank completed writing his thesis this summer. INCORRECT:I miss to watch the news when I am traveling. CORRECT: I miss watching the news when I am traveling. INCORRECT:She mentions stop at El Paso in her letter. CORRECT: She mentions stoPr>ine, at El Paso in her letter.

Part A: Choose the correct answer. Strauss finished (A) written (B) write (C) to write (D) writing

two of his published compositions before his tenth birthday.

Part B: Choose the incorrect word or phrase and correct it. Many people have stopped to smoke because they are afraid that it may be harmful to their health. (C) (Dl (A) (B)

Verb Phrases that Require an -ing Form in the Complement Remember that the following verb phrases require an -ing form for a verb in the complement: approve of be better off can't help count on

do not mind forget about get through insist on

keep on look forward to object to think about think of

114

REVIEW OF STRUCTURE -

C

V

L.

--. C (-ing)

. -,....

.

--

.-.

-

-

She

forgot about

canceling

r

her appointment

Avoid using an infinitive after the verb phrases listed. Avoid using a verb word after look forward to and object to. Remember that the verb phrase BE likely does not require an -ing form but requires an infinitive in the complement.

LNCORRECT: She is likely knowing. CORRECT: She is likely to know. INCORRECT:Let's go to the movie when you get through to study. CORRECT: Let's go to the movie when you get t h r o u ~ hstudying. INCORRECT:We can't help to wonder why she left. CORRECT: We can't help wondering why she left. INCORRECT:I have been looking forward to meet you. CORRECT: I have been looking forward to meeting you. INCORRECT:We wouldn't mind to wait. CORRECT: We wouldn't mind waiting.

Part A: Choose the correct answer. Many modern architects insist on surrounding landscape. (A) use (B) to use (C) the use (D) using

materials native to the region that will blend into the

Part B: C h m e the incorrect word or phrase and correct it. During Jackson's administration, those

did not approve of permit common people in the White (A) (B) House were shocked by the president's insistence that they be invited into the mansion. (C) (Dl

Many grammar books list a large number of tenses in English, but the two basic tenses are present and past. Auxiliary verbs are used with main verbs to express future and other special times.

4

Irregular Past Forms

Remember that past forms of the following irregular verbs are not the same as the participles: Verb Word

Past Form

Participle

be beat become begin bite blow break choose come do draw drink drive eat fall fly forget forgive freeze get give 90 grow hide know ride run see shake show shrink sing speak steal swear swim take tear throw wear weave withdraw write

wadwere beat became began bit blew broke chose came did drew drank drove ate fell flew forgot forgave froze got gave went grew hid knew rode ran saw shook showed shrank sang spoke stole swore s wam took tore threw wore wove withdrew wrote

been beaten become begun bitten blown broken chosen come done drawn drunk driven eaten fallen flown forgotten forgiven frozen gotten or got given gone grown hidden known ridden run seen shaken shown shrunk sung spoken stolen sworn swum taken torn thrown worn woven withdrawn written

116

REVIEW OF STRUCTURE - .- -

P

-

.- .

S

v (past>

M

The concert

began

at eight o'clock

-

Avoid using a participle instead of a past for simple past statements.

INCORRECT:They done it very well after they had practiced. CORRECT:They did it very well after they had practiced. INCORRECT:Before she run the computer program, she had checked it out with her supervisor. CORRECT:Before she ran the computer program, she had checked it out with her supervisor. INCORRECT: We eat dinner in Albuquerque on our vacation last year. CORRECT:We & dinner in Albuquerque on our vacation last year. INCORRECT: My nephew begun working for me about ten years ago. CORRECT:My nephew began working for me about ten years ago. INCORRECT:I know that you been forty on your last birthday. CORRECT:I know that you were forty on your last birthday.

Part A: Choose the correct answer. Before the Angles and the Saxons (A) coming (B) come (C) came (D) did come

to England, the Iberians had lived there.

Part B: Choose the incorrect word or phrase and correct it. When Columbus seen the New World, he thought that he had reached the East Indies by way of a (C> (Dl (A) (B) Western route.

Conditionals are statements with if or unless. They are opinions about the conditions (circum-

stances) that influence results, and opinions about the results. There are two kinds of conditionals. In most grammar books, they are called real or factual conditionals and unreal or contrary-to-fact conditionals. Factual conditionals express absolute, scientific facts, probable results, or possible results. Contrary-to-fact conditionals express improbable or impossible results.

4

Factual Conditionals-Absolute,

Scientific Results

Remember that absolute conditionals express scientific facts. Will and a verb word expresses the opinion that the result is absolutely certain.

will

Avoid using will and a verb word instead of the present verb in the clause beginning with if. Avoid using the auxiliary verbs have, has, do, and does with main verbs in the clause of result.

INCORRECT:If water freezes, it has become a solid. CORRECT:If water freezes. il becomes a solid. or If water freezes. h will become a solid. INCORRECT:If children be healthy, they learn to walk at about eighteen months old. CORRECT: If children are healthy, they learn to walk at about,eighteen months old. or If children are healthy, & K Y J will learn to walk at about eighteen months old. INCORRECT:If orange blossoms are exposed to very cold temperatures, they withered and died. wither and die. CORRECT: If orange blossoms are exposed to very cold temperatures, or If orange blossoms are exposed to very cold temperatures, thev will wither and die. INCORRECT:If the trajectory of a satellite will be slightly off at launch, it will get worse as the flight . progresses. CORRECT: If the trajectory of a satellite b slightly off at launch, it gets worse as the flight progresses. or If the trajectory of a satellite k slightly off at launch, it will get worse as the flight progresses.

REVIEW OF STRUCTURE

118

INCORRECT:If light strikes a rough surface, it diffused. CORRECT: If light strikes a rough surface, it diffuses. or Z_f light strikes a rough surface, it will diffuse.

Part A: Choose the correct answer.

If water is heated to 212 degrees F. '

as steam.

(A) it will boil and escape (B) it is boiling and escaping (C) it boil and escape (D) it would boil and escape

Part B: Choose the incorrect word or phrase and correct it. If a live sponge is broken into pieces, each piece would turn into a new sponge (A) (B) (C> the original one. (Dl

fi!i

Factual Conditionals-Probable

Results for the Future

Remember that willand a verb word expresses the opinion that the results are absolutely certain. In order of more to less probable, use the following modals: will, can, may.

-.---.

S

will can may

verb word

We

will

write

her

-

-.

I

if

S

V (present)

if

we

find

---

-..-,--

her address

Avoid using the present tense verb instead of a modal and a verb word in the clause of result.

INCORRECT:If you put too much water in rice when you cook it, it got sticky. ~ much water in rice when you cook it, it will get sticky. CORRECT: If you D U too or It will get sticky if you ~ utoo t much water in rice when you cook it. INCORRECT:If they have a good sale, I would have stopped by on my way home. CORRECT: If they have a good sale, I will stop by on my way home. or I will stop by on my way home if they have a good sale. INCORRECT:We will wait if you wanted to go. CORRECT: We will wait if you want to go. or If you want to go, we will wait. INCORRECT:If you listen to the questions carefully, you answer them easily. CORRECT: If you listen to the questions carefully, vou will answer them easily. or You will answer them easily if you listen to the questions carefully. INCORRECT:If we finished our work a little early today, we'll attend the lecture at the art museum. CORRECT: If we finish our work a little early today, we'll attend the lecture at the art museum. or We'll attend the lecture at the art museum if we finish our work a little early today.

Part A: Choose the correct answer. If services are increased, taxes (A) will probably go up (B) probably go up (C) probably up (D) going up probably

Part B: Choose the incorrect word or phrase and correct it.

If you don't register before the last day of regular registration, you paying a late fee. (A) (B (C) (D)

a

120

REVIEW OF S-TRUCTURE

Contrary-to-Fact Conditionals--Change in Conditions Unless

Remember that there is a subject and verb that determines the change in conditions after the connector unless.

Luisa

won't return

unle unless

b

V

she

a scholarship

gets

Avoid deleting unless from the sentence; avoid deleting either the subject or the verb from the clause after unless.

INCORRECT:I can't go I don't get my work finished. CORRECT: I can't go unless I get my work finished. INCORRECT:They are going to get a divorce unless he stopping drugs. CORRECT: They are going to get a divorce unless he stops taking drugs. INCORRECT:You won't get well unless you are taking your medicine. CORRECT: YOUwon't get well unless you take your medicine. INCORRECT:Dean never calls his father unless needs money. CORRECT: Dean never calls his father unless he needs money. We can't pay the rent unless the scholarship check. INCORRFCT: CORRECT: We can't pay the rent unless the scholarship check comes.

Part A: Choose the correct answer. Football teams don't play in the Super Bowl championship American Conference. (A) unless they win (B) but they win (C) unless they will win (D) but to have won

either the National or the

Part B: Choose the incorrect word or phrase and correct it. Usually & cannot become Boy Scouts unless completed the fifth grade. (A) (B) (C> (Dl

Some verbs, nouns, and expressions require a subjunctive. A subjunctive is a change in the usual form of the verb. A subjunctive is often a verb word in English.

Importance-Subjunctive Verbs Remember that the following verbs are used before that and the verb word clause to express importance. ask demand desire insist prefer propose

recommend request require suggest urge

Avoid using a present or past tense verb instead of a verb word. Avoid using a modal before the verb word. Note: The verb insist may be used in non-subjunctive patterns in the past tense. For example: He insisted that I was wrong.

INCORRECT:The doctor suggested that she will not smoke. CoRRECT: The doctor suggested that she not smoke.

I propose that the vote is secret ballot. I propose that the vote be secret ballot. The foreign student advisor recommended that she studied more English before enrolling at the university. The foreign student advisor recommended that she study more English before enrolling at the university. The law requires that everyone has his car checked at least once a year. his car checked at least once a year. The law requires that everyone She insisted that they would give her a receipt. She insisted that they glve her a receipt.

REVIEW OF STRUCTURE

122

Part A: Choose the correct answer. Less moderate members of Congress are insisting that changes in the Social Security System made. (A) will (B) are (C) being (Dl be

Part B: Choose the incorrect word or phrase and correct it.

a

Many architects prefer that a dome is used to roof buildings that need to conserve floor space. (A) (B) (C) (D)

Importance-Impersonal

Expressions

Remember that the following adjectives are used in impersonal expressions. essential imperative important necessary

v -. .

7

it is

adjective

that

S

verb word

It is

important

that

the data

be

verified

Avoid using a present tense verb instead of a verb word. Avoid using a modal before the verb word.

INCORRECT:It is not necessary that you must take an entrance examination to be admitted to an American university. CORRECT: It is not necessary to take an entrance examination to be admitted to an American university. or It is not necessary that you take an entrance examination to be admitted to an American university.

It is imperative that you are on time. It is imperative toon time. or It is imperative that you be on time. It is important that I will speak with Mr. Williams immediately. It is important to Speak with Mr. Williams immediately. or It is important that I speak with Mr. Williams immediately. It is imperative that your signature appears on your identification card. It is imperative to sign your identification card. or It is imperative that your signature appear on your identification card. It is essential that all applications and transcripts are filed no later than July 1. It is essential to file all applications and transcripts no later than July 1. or It is essential that all applications and transcripts be filed no later than July 1.

Part A: Choose the correct answer. It is necessary the approaches to a bridge, the road design, and the alignment in such a way as to best accommodate the expected traffic flow over and under it. (A) plan (B) to plan (C) planning (D) the plan

Part B: Choose the incorrect word or phrase and correct it. It is essential that vitamins are supplied either by foods or by supplementary tablets for normal (A) (B) (C> growth to occur. (Dl

REVIEW OF STRUCTURE

124 P--

--.

-.

-

,

PROBLEMS WITH INFINITIVES An infinitive is to + the verb word.

Remember that an infinitive can express purpose. It is a short form of in order to. 4.-

s Laura She

--

_P_

infinitive (purpose)

V jogs takes

vitamins

--

I.

to stay to feel

-

fit better

Avoid expressing purpose without the word to in the infinitive. Avoid using for instead of to.

Wear several layers of clothing for keep warm. Wear several layers of clothing to k e e ~ warm. David has studied hard the succeed. David has studied hard to succeed. Don't move your feet when you swing for play golf well. Don't move your feet when you swing to play golf well. Virginia always boils the water twice make tea. Virginia always boils the water twice to make tea. Wait until June plant those bulbs. Wait until June to plant those bulbs.

Part A: Choose the correct answer. In the Monill Act, Congress granted federal lands to the states ical arts colleges. (A) for establish (B) to establish (C) establish (D) establishment

agricultural and mechan-

Part B: Choose the incorrect word or phrase and correct it. Papyrus was used for to make not only paper but also sails, baskets, and clothing. (A) (B) (C> (D)

PROBLEMS WITH PASSIVES A passive changes the emphasis of a sentence. Usually in a passive, the event or result is more important than the person who causes it to happen. For example, born, known as, and left are participles. They are com,monly used with BE in passive sentences. Why? Because the person born, the person known, and the person or thing left are the important parts of the sentences.

4

Passives-Word

Order

Remember that in a passive sentence the actor is unknown or not important. The subject is not the actor. Passive sentences are also common in certain styles of scientific writing. -.-

--

----

S

BE

participle

State University

is

located

r.+--r-r.

.rr.

l'-

x

-

at the corner of College and Third

Avoid using a participle without a form of the verb BE.

My wedding ring made of yellow and white gold. My wedding ring is made of yellow and white gold. (It is the ring, not the person who made the ring, that is important.) If your brother invited, he would come. If your brother were invited, he would come. (It is your brother, not the person who invited him, that is important.) Mr. Wilson known as Willie to his friends. Mr. Wilson is known as Willie to his friends. (It is MI: Wilson, not his friends, that is important.) References not used in the examination room. References are not used in the examination room. (It is references, not the persons using them, that are important.) Laura born in Iowa. Laura was born in Iowa. (It is Lnura, not her mother who bore her, that is important.)

126

REVIEW OF STRUCTURE

Part A: Choose the correct answer. In the stringed instruments, the tones be made of wire or gut. (A) they produce (B) producing (C) are produced (D) that are producing

by playing a bow across a set of strings that may

Part B: Choose the incorrect word or phrase and correct it. Work is often measure in units called foot pounds. (A) (B) (C) (Dl

Belief and Knowledge-Anticipatory

It

Remember that an anticipatory it clause expresses belief or knowledge. Anticipatory means before. Some it clauses that go before main clauses are listed below: It is believed It is hypothesized It is known It is said It is thought It is true It is written.

ipatory i~ It is believed

all mammals

1

experience

dreams

Avoid using an -ingform, a noun, or an infinitive instead of a subject and verb after an anticipatory itclause.

INCORRECT:It is hypothesized that the subjects in the control group not to score as well. CORRECT: It is hypothesized that the subjects in the control group will not score as well. INCORRECT: It is generally known that she leaving at the end of the year. sat the end of the year. CORRECT: It is generally known that she i INCORRECT:It is said that a buried treasure near here. CORRECT: It is said that a buried treasure was hidden near here. INCORRECT:It is believed that a horseshoe bringing good luck. CORRECT: It is believed that a horseshoe brings good luck. INCORRECT:It is thought that our ancestors building this city. CORRECT: It is thought that our ancestors built this city.

Part A: Choose the correct answer. Giant Ape Man, our biggest and probably one of our first human ancestors, was just about the size of a male gorilla. (A) It is believed that (B) That it is (C) That is believed (D) That believing

Part B: Choose the incorrect word or phrase and correct it. That it is believed that most of the earthquakes in the world occur near the youneest mountain (B) (C) (Dl (A) ranges-the Himalayas, the Andes, and the Sierra Nevadas.

128

REVIEW OF STRUCTURE

ROBLEMS WITH Have, has, or had + participle express duration of time.

4

Predictions- Will Have + Participle

Remember that will have followed by a participle and a future adverb expresses a prediction for a future activity or event.

Avoid using will instead of will have.

INCORRECT:YOUwill finished your homework by the time the movie starts. CORRECT: YOUwill have finished your homework by the time the movie starts. INCORRECT:Jan will left by five o'clock. CORRECT: Jan will have left by five o'clock. INCORRECT:Before school is out, I have returned all of my library books. CORRECT: Before school is out, I will have returned all of my library books. INCORRECT:We have gotten an answer to our letter by the time we have to make a decision. CORRECT: We will have gotten an answer to our letter by the time we have to make a decision. INCORRECT:Before we can tell them about the discount, they will bought the tickets. CORRECT: Before we can tell them about the discount, they will have bought the tickets.

Part A: Choose the correct answer. By the middle of the twenty-first century, the computer (A) became (B) becoming (C) has become (D) will have become

a necessity in every home.

Part B: Choose the incorrect word or phrase and correct it. It is believed that by 2010 immunotherapy have succeeded in a number of serious illnesses. (Dl (A) (B) (C>

PROBLEMS WITH AUXILIARY VER. Auxiliary verbs a r e additional verbs that may be used with main verbs to add meaning. For example, all of the forms of BE, HAVE, DO, and all modals are auxiliary verbs.

Missing Auxiliary Verb-Active Remember that some main verbs require auxiliary verbs.

Avoid using -ing forms without BE, participles without HAVE, and verb words without modats when -ing, a participle, or a verb word function as a main verb.

The party is a surprise, but all of her friends coming. The party is a surprise, but all of her friends are coming. She read it to you later tonight. She will read it to you later tonight. The sun shining when we left this morning. The sun was shining, when we left this morning. We gone there before. We have pone there before.

I can't talk with you right now because the doorbell ringing. I can't talk with you right now because the doorbell is ringing.

130

REVIEW OF STRUCTURE

Part A: Choose the correct answer. the vegetation in the high branches of trees where

The giraffe survives in part because it other animals have not grazed. (A) to reach (B) can reach , (C) reaching (D) reach

Part B: Choose the incorrect word or phrase and correct it. accord in^ to some scientists, the earth losing & outer atmosphere because of pollutants.

(B) (C)

(A)

4

(D)

Missing Auxiliary Verb-Passive

Remember that the passive requires an auxiliary BE verb

-

- .

- . -- ---

-

S

BE

participle

The plants The plants The plants

are been be

watered watered watered

have should

Avoid using a passive without a form of BE.

The phone answered automatically. The phone h answered automatically. They have informed already. They have been informed already. These books should returned today. These books should be returned today. The plane delayed by bad weather. The plane was delayed by bad weather. My paper has not typed. My paper has not been tyued.

Part A: Choose the correct answer. Hydrogen peroxide and surfaces. (A) used (B) i s used (C) i s using (D) that i t uses

as a bleaching agent because i t effectively whitens a variety of fibers

Part B: Choose the incorrect word or phrase and correct it. If a rash occurs within twenty-four hours after taking a new medication, the treatment (A) (B) (C) should discontinued.

(D)

You probably remember learning that "pronouns take the place of nouns." What this means is that pronouns often are used instead of nouns to avoid repetition of nouns. A pronoun usually has a reference noun that has been mentioned before in conversation or in writing. The pronoun is used instead of repeating the reference noun. In some grammar books, the reference noun is called the "antecedent of the pronoun" because it has been mentioned before. "Ante" means "before." For example, in the following sentence, the word them is a pronoun that refers to the noun secretaries. Many secretaries are using computers to help them work faster and more efficiently. There are several different kinds of pronouns in English. Some of them are personal pronouns, which can be either subject or object pronouns; possessive pronouns; relative pronouns; reflexive pronouns; and reciprocal pronouns.

a

Object Pro~iounsafter Prepositions

Remember that personal pronouns used as the object of a preposition should be object case pronouns. 7a

-

----.-w--

-r.

.

-

..-

,,.

.-

->

---

-..

preposition

pronoun (object)

for

her

..-

-

I would be glad to take a message

Remember that the following prepositions are commonly used with object pronouns:

132

REVIEW OF STRUCTURE

among

between for from

of to with

Avoid using a subject pronoun instead of an object pronoun after a proposition.

INCORRECT:The experiment proved to my lab partner and I that prejudices about the results of an investigation are often unfounded. CORRECT:The experiment proved my lab partner and me that prejudices about the results of an investigation are often unfounded. INCORRECT:Of those who graduated with Betty and he, Ellen is the only one who has found a good job. i t J Betty and him, Ellen is the only one who has found a good CORRECT: Of those who graduated y job. INCORRECT:Among we men, it was he who always acted as the interpreter. CORRECT: Among us men, it was he who always acted as the interpreter. INCORRECT:The cake is from Jan, and the flowers are from Larry and we. CORRECT: The cake is from Jan, and the flowers are from Larry and us. INCORRECT:Just between you and I, this isn't a very good price. CORRECT:Just between you and me, this isn't a very good price.

Part A: Choose the correct answer. Since the Earth's crust is much thicker under the continents, equipment would have to be capable of drilling through 100,000feet of rock to investigate the mantle (A) beneath them (B) beneath their (C) beneath its (D) beneath they

Part B: Choose the incorrect word or phrase and correct it. According to Amazon legends, men were forced toall of the household tasks for the women war(A) (B) riors who governed and protected the cities for they. (C) (Dl

4

Relative Pronouns that Refer to Persons and Things

Remember that who is used to refer to persons, and which is used to refer to things. -.

She is

,

someone

who

the secretary

who

+

-

works in the international office

Avoid using which instead of who in reference to a person.

Avoid using who instead of which in reference to a thing.

INCORRECT:The people which cheated on the examination had to leave the room. CORRECT: The people cheated on the examination had to leave the room. INCORRECT:There is someone on line two which would like to speak with you. CORRECT:There is someone on line two who would like to speak with you. INCORRECT:Who is the man which asked the question? CORRECT: Who is the man who asked the question? INCORRECT: The person which was recommended for the position did not fulfill the minimum requirements. CORRECT: The person who was recommended for the position did not fulfill the minimum requirements. INCORRECT:The student which receives the highest score will be awarded a scholarship. CORRECT: The student who receives the highest score will be awarded a scholarship.

Part A: Choose the correct answer. Charlie Chaplin was a comedian (A) who (B) which (C) whose (D) what

was best known for his work in silent movies.

134

REVIEW OF STRUCTURE

Part B: Choose the incorrect word or phrase and correct it. Absolute zero, the temperature at whom all substances have zero thermal energy and thus, (A) (B) unattainable in practice. the lowest . ----.- possible temperatures,

(Dl

(C)

YOU have probably learned that "a noun is the name of a person, place, or thing." Nouns perform several functions in English, but "naming" is clearly the most important. There are two basic classifications of nouns in English. In some grammar books, they are called count nouns and noncount nouns. In other grammar books, they are called count nouns and mass nouns. In still other grammar books, they are called countable and uncountable nouns. All of these names are very confusing because, of course, everything can be counted. The problem is howto count it. And, in that respect, the two classifications of nouns are very different. Count or countable nouns have both singular and plural forms. They are used in agreement with singular or plural verbs. In contrast, mass or noncount, uncountable nouns have only one form. They are used in agreement with singular verbs. Often count or countable nouns are individual persons, places, or things that can be seen and counted individually. Often mass, noncount, or uncountable nouns are substances and ideas that are shapeless by nature and cannot be seen and counted individually. But it is not always logic that determines whether a noun is count or noncount. Sometimes it is simply a grammatical convention-that is, a category that people agree to use in their language. Both beans and rice have small parts that would be difficult but not impossible to count. But beans is considered a count noun and rice is considered a noncount noun. Why? Because it is a grammatical convention.

4

Count Nouns

Remember that count nouns have both singular and plural forms. Plural numbers can precede count nouns but not noncount nouns. There are several categories of count nouns that can help you organize your study. Some of them are listed here. 1. Names of persons, their relationships, and their occupations:

one boy one friend one student

two boys two friends two students

2. Names of animals, plants, insects:

one dog one flower one bee

two dogs two flowers two bees

3. Names of things with a definite, individual shape: one car two cars one house two houses one room two rooms 4. Units of measurement: one inch two inches one pound two pounds one degree two degrees 5. Units of classification in society: one family two families one country two countries one language two languages

6. Containers of noncount solids, liquids, pastes, and gases: one bottle two bottles one jar two jars one tube two tubes 7. A limited number of abstract concepts: one idea two ideas one invention two inventions one plan two plans

Avoid using a singular count noun with a plural number

We have twenty dollar left. We have twenty dollars left.

I hope that I can lose about five pound before summer. I hope that I can lose about five pounds before summer. Several of the people in this class speak three or four language. Several of the people in this class speak three or four languages. The temperature has risen ten degree in two hours. The temperature has risen ten degrees in two hours. The teacher has ordered two book, but they aren't in at the bookstore. The teacher has ordered two books, but they aren't in at the bookstore.

136

REVIEW OF STRUCTURE

Part A: Choose the correct answer. A desert receives less than twenty-five (A) centimeter (B) a centimeter (C) centimeters ID)of centimeters

of rainfall every year.

Part B: Choose the incorrect word or phrase and correct it. In 1950 i t was naively predicted that eight or ten computer would be sufficient to handle all of the (A) (B) (C> (Dl scientific and business needs i n the United States.

Remember that noncount nouns have only one form. They are used in agreement with singular verbs. The word the does not precede them. There are categories of noncount nouns that can help you organize your study. Some of them are listed here. 1. Food staples that can be purchased in various forms:

bread meat butter 2. Construction materials that can change shape, depending on what is made: wood iron glass 3. Liquids that can change shape, depending on the shape of the container:

oil tea milk 4. Natural substances that can change shape, depending on natural laws:

steam, water, ice smoke, ashes oxygen

5. Substances with many small parts: rice sand sugar

6. Groups of things that have different sizes and shapes: (a coat, a shirt, a sock) clothing furniture (a table, a chair, a bed) (a suitcase, a trunk, a box) luggage

7.Languages: Arabic Japanese Spanish

8. Abstract concepts, often with endings -ness, -ance, -ence, -ity: beauty ignorance peace

9. Most -ingforms: learning shopping working

-- - noun . . (noncount) -.. - .

- ,

F-

-

--I

verb (singular)

of an ever-increasing volume of mail. (D)

qj

Agreement-Subject

with Appositive and Verb

Remember that there must be agreement of subject and verb. An appositive is a word or phrase that follows a noun and defines it. An appositive usually has a comma before it and a comma after it. In all patterns, avoid using a verb that agrees with words in the appositive after a subject instead of with the subject itself.

The books, an English dictionary and a chemistry text, was on the shelf yesterday. The books, an English dictionary and a chemistry text, were on the shelf yesterday. Three swimmers from our team, Paul, Ed, and Jim, is in competition for medals. Three swimmers from our team, Paul, Ed, and Jim, are in competition for medals. Several pets, two dogs and a cat, needs to be taken care of while we are gone. Several pets, two dogs and a cat, need to be taken care of while we are gone. State University, the largest of the state-supported schools, have more than 50,000 students on main campus. State University, the largest of the state-supported schools, has more than 50,000 students on main campus.

180

REVIEW OF STRUCTURE

INCORRECT:This recipe, an old family secret, are an especially important part of our holiday celebrations. CORRECT: This recipe, an old family secret, & an especially important part of our holiday celebrations.

Part A: Choose the correct answer. Cupid, one of the ancient Roman gods, (A) were a little winged child (B) representing as a little winged child (C) was represented as a little winged child (D) a little winged child

Part B: Choose the incorrect word or phrase and correct it. Columbus, Ohio, the capital of the state, are not only the largest city in Ohio but also a typical met(A) (B) (C> ropolitan area, often used in market research. (Dl

fi!l

Agreement-Verb-Subject

Order

There and here introduce verb-subject order. The verb agrees with the subject following it.

*.

rn There

are

the results of the election

Avoid using a verb that does not agree with the subject.

INCORRECT:There was ten people in line already when we arrived. CORRECT: There were ten people in line already when we arrived. There have been very little rain this summer. INCORRECT: CORRECT:There has been very little rain this summer. INCORRECT:Here are their house. CORRECT: Here .Jtheir house.

J

INCORRECT:There has been several objections to the new policy. CORRECT: There have been several obiections to the new policy. INCORRECT:I think that there were a problem. CORRECT:I think that there was a problem.

Part A: Choose the correct answer.

In a suspension bridge

that carry one or more flexible cables firmly attached at each end.

(A) there is two towers on it (B) there are two towers (C) two towers there are (D) towers there are two

Part B: Choose the incorrect word or phrase and correct it. There is about 600 schools in the United States that use the Montessori method to encouras indi(B) (C) (Dl (A) vidual initiative.

4

Agreement-Noun

and Prono~rn

In all patterns, there must be agreement of noun and pronoun. Avoid using a pronoun that does not agree in number with the noun to which it refers.

If you want to leave a message for Mr. and Mrs. Carlson, I will be glad to take them. If you want to leave a message for Mr. and Mrs. Carlson, I will be glad to take h. A1 is interested in mathematics and their applications. A1 is interested in mathematics and b applications.

It is easier to talk about a problem than to resolve them. It is easier to talk about a problem than to resolve b. Although their visas will expire in June, they can have it extended for three months. Although their visas will expire in June, they can have them extended for three months. In spite of its small size, these cameras take very good pictures. In spite of their small size, these cameras take very good pictures.

182

REVIEW OF STRUCTURE

Part A: Choose the correct answer. A college bookstore that sells used textbooks stocks under the course title. (A) its (B) their (C) a (D) them

along with the new ones on the shelf

Part B: Choose the incorrect word or phrase and correct it. Magnesium, the lightest of our structural metals, has an important place among common (A) (B) engineering materials because of their weight. (C) (Dl

fi!i

Agreement-Subject

and Possessive Pronoi~ns

In all patterns, there must be agreement of subject pronoun and possessive pronouns that refer to the subject. Subject Pronouns I YOU he she it we YOU they

Possessive Pronouns my your his her its our your their

Remember that it refers to a small baby. Avoid using it's instead of its as a possessive pronoun. It's means it is.

INCORRECT:Those of us who are over fifty years old should get their blood pressure checked regularly. CORRECT:Those of us who are over fifty years old should get our blood pressure checked regularly. INCORRECT: Our neighbors know that when they go on vacation, we will get its mail for them. CORRECT: Our neighbors know that when & go on vacation, we will get their mail for them. INCORRECT:A mother who works outside of the home has to prepare for emergencies when she cannot be there to take care of your sick child. CORRECT:A mother who works outside of the home has to prepare for emergencies when she cannot be there to take care of her sick child.

INCORRECT:Wine tends to lose their flavor when it has not been properly sealed. CORRECT: Wine tends to lose its flavor when it has not been properly sealed. INCORRECT:Optional equipment on a car can add several hundred dollars to it's resale value when you trade it in. CORRECT: Optional equipment on a car can add several hundred dollars to its resale value when you trade 2 in.

Part A: Choose the correct answer. The television programs we allow (A) a children (B) our children (C) our child (D) their childs

to watch influence their learning.

Part B: Choose the incorrect word or phrase and correct it. Although maple trees are among the most colorful varieties in the fall. they lose its leaves (A) (B) (C) sooner than oak trees. (Dl

Introductory verbal modifiers introduce and modify the subject and verb in the main clause of the sentence. They can be -ing forms, -ed forms, or infinitives. They are usually separated from the main clause by a comma.

a

Verbal Modifiers-

ling and -ed Forms

-ing forms and -ed forms may be used as verbals. Verbals function as modifiers. An introductory verbal modifier with -ing or -ed should immediately precede the noun it modifies. Otherwise, the relationship between the noun and the modifier is unclear, and the sentence is illogical. Avoid using a noun immediately after an introductory verbal phrase which may not be logically modified by the phrase.

INC~RRECT: After graduating from City College, Professor Baker's studies were continued at State University, where he received his Ph.D. in English. CORRECT: After from City College, Professor Baker continued his studies at State University, where he received his Ph.D. in English.

184

REVIEW OF STRUCTURE

Returning to her room, several pieces of jewelry were missing. Returning to her room, she found that several pieces of jewelry were missing. Having been delayed by heavy traffic, it was not possible for her to arrive on time. Having been delayed by heavy trafffic, she arrived late. Accustomed to getting up early, the new schedule was not difficult for him to adjust to. Accustomed to gettinp up early, he had no difficulty adjusting to the new schedule. After finishing his speech, the audience was invited to ask questions. After finishing his speech, he invited the audience to ask questions.

Part A: Choose the correct answer. air traffic controllers guide planes through conditions of near zero visibility. (A) They talk with pilots and watch their approach on radar, (B) Talking with pilots and watching their approach on radar, (C) Talk with pilots and watch their approach on radar, (D) When they talked with pilots and watched their approach on radar,

Part B: Choose the incorrect word or phrase and correct it. Have designed his own plane, The Spirit of St. Louis,Lindbergh few1 from Roosevelt Field in New (A) (B) York across the ocean to Le Bourget Field outside Paris. (C> (Dl

4

Verbal Modifiers-Infinitives

of Purpose to lntrod~lcelnstri~ctions

An infinitive that expresses purpose may be used a s an introductory verbal modifier. Remember that a verb word follows the infinitive. The verb word expresses a manner to accomplish the purpose. Avoid using a noun or to with an -ing form instead of the infinitive of purpose. Avoid using an -ing form or a passive construction after an introductory verbal modifier.

To protect yourself from dangerous exposure to the sun's rays, using a sunscreen. To protect yourself from dangerous exposure to the sun's rays, use a sunscreen. Prepare for the TOEFL, study thirty minutes every day for several months. To prepare for the TOEFL, study thirty minutes every day for several months. In order to take advantage of low air fares, to buy your tickets well in advance. In order to take advantage of low air fares, buv your tickets well in advance. To taking action pictures, always use a high-speed film. To take action pictures, always use a high-speed film. The send letters and packages from the United States overseas, use Global Mail or DHL Delivery.

CORRECT: TO send letters and packages from the United States overseas, use Global Mail or DHL Delivery.

Part A: Choose the correct answer. To relieve pressure in the skull, into the blood. (A) you will inject a strong solution of pure glucose (B) to inject a strong solution of pure glucose (C) a strong solution of glucose will inject purely (D) inject a strong solution of pure glucose

Part B: Choose the incorrect word or phrase and correct it. To estimate how much it will cost to build a home, finding the total square footage of the house and (A) (B) (C> multiply by cost per square foot. (D)

a

Parallel structure means expressing ideas of equal importance with the same grammatical

structures.

Parallel Structure-In

a Series

In all patterns, ideas of equal importance should be expressed by the same grammatical structure. Avoid expressing ideas in a series with different structures.

INCORRECT: Jane is young, enthusiastic, and she has talent. CORRECT: Jane is young, enthusiastic. and talented.

INCORRECT:We learned to read the passages carefully and underlining the main ideas. CORRECT: We learned to read the passages carefully and to underline the main ideas. INCORRECT:The duties of the new secretary are to answer the telephone, to type letters, and bookkeeping. CORRECT: The duties of the new secretary are to answer the telephone, to tyDe letters, and tothe bookkeeping. INCORRECT:The patient's symptoms were fever, dizziness, and his head hurt. CORRECT: The patient's symptoms were fever, dizziness, and headaches. INCORRECT:Professor Williams enjoys teaching and to write. CORRECT: Professor Williams enjoys teaching and writing.

186

REVIEW OF STRUCTURE

Part A: Choose the correct answer. In a hot, sunny climate, man acclimatizes by eating less, drinking more liquids, wearing lighter clothing, and (A) skin changes that darken (B) his skin may darken (C) experiencing a darkening of the skin (D) darkens his skin

Part B: Choose the incorrect word or phrase and correct it. The aims of the European Economic Community are to eliminate tariffs between member countries; (A) developing common policies for agriculture, labor, welfare, trade, and transportation; and to abolish (B) (C) (Dl trusts and cartels.

a

Parallel Structure-After

Correlative Conjunctions

Remember that ideas of equal importance are introduced by correlative conjunctions:

both...and not only...but also

Avoid expressing ideas after correlative conjunctions with different structures.

She is not only famous in the United States but also abroad. She is famous not only in the United States but also abroad. The exam tested both listening and to read. The exam tested both listening and reading. He is not only intelligent but also he is creative. He is not only intelligent but also creative. Flying is not only faster but also it is safer than traveling by car. Flying is not only faster but also safer than traveling by car. John registered for both Electrical Engineering 500 and to study Mathematics 390. John registered for both Electrical Engineering 500 and Mathematics 390.

Part A: Choose the correct answer. Both historically and (A) in its geography (B) geographically (C) also its geography (D) geography

, Ontario is the heartland of Canada.

Part B: Choose the incorrect word or phrase and correct it. The cacao bean was cultivated by the Aztecs not only to drink but also currency. (A) (B) (C> (Dl

Redundancy means using more words than necessary.

a

Redundancy-Unnecessary

Phrases

In all patterns, prefer simple, direct sentences to complicated, indirect sentences. Find the SubjectVerb-Complement-Modifier, and determine whether the other words are useful or unnecessary.

1

Lee

I

learned

I

English

I

quickly

Avoid using an adjective with such phrases as in characteror in nature.

Avoid using the redundant pattern instead of an adverb such as quickly.

INCORRECT:The key officials who testified before the Senate committee responded in a manner that was evasive. The kev officials who testified before the Senate committee responded evasively. CORRECT: INCORRECT:Mr. Davis knows a great deal in terms of the condition of the situation. CORRECT: Mr. Davis knows a great deal about the situation. INCORRECT:It was a problem which was very difficult in character and very delicate in nature. CORRECT: The problem was difficult and delicate.

I

REVIEW OF STRUCTURE

188

INCORRECT:The disease was very serious in the nature of it. CORRECT: The disease was very serious.

INCORRECT:Mary had always behaved in a responsible manner. CORRECT: Mary had always behaved responsibly.

Part A: Choose the correct answer. ~

Waitresses and waiters who serve (A) in a courteous manner (B) courteously (C) with courtesy in their manner (D) courteous

deserve at least a 20 percent tip.

8

Part B: Choose the incorrect word or phrase and correct it. Hummingbirds move their wings so r a ~ i da way that they appear to be hanging in the air. (A) (B) (C) (D)

4

Redondancy-Repetition of Words with the Same Meaning

In all patterns, avoid using words with the same meaning consecutively in a sentence.

The money that I have is sufficient enough for my needs. The money that I have is sufficient for my needs. Bill asked the speaker to repeat again because he had not heard him the first time. Bill asked the speaker to repeat because he had not heard him the first time. The class advanced forward rapidly. The class advanced rapidly. She returned back to her hometown after she had finished her degree. She returned to her hometown after she had finished her degree.

I am nearly almost finished with this chapter. I am nearly finished with this chapter. or I am almost finished with th.is chapter.

Part A: Choose the correct answer. Famous for his punctuation, typography, and language, Edward Estlin Cummings published his collected poems in 1954. (A) new innovations for (B) innovations in (C) newly approached (D) innovations newly approached in

Part B: Choose the incorrect word or phrase and correct it. The idea of a submarine is an old ancient one, dating from as early as the fifteenth century when (A) (B) (C) Drebbel and Da Vinci & preliminary drawings. (Dl

a

Redundancy-Repetition of Noun by Pronoun

In all patterns, avoid using a noun and the pronoun that refers to it consecutively in a sentence. Avoid using a pronoun after the noun it refers to, and that.

INCQRRECT:My teacher he said to listen to the news on the radio in order to practice listening comprehension. CORRECT: My teacher said to listen to the news on the radio in order to practice listening comprehension. INCORRECT:Steve he plans to go into business with his father. CORRECT: Steve plans to go into business with his father. INCORRECT:My sister she found a store that imported food from our country. CORRECT: My sister found a store that imported food from our country. INCORRECT:Hospitalization that it covers room, meals, nursing, and additional hospital expenses such as lab tests, X-rays, and medicine. CORRECT: Hospitalization covers room, meals, nursing, and additional hospital expenses such as lab tests, X-rays, and medicine. INCORRECT:Anne she wants to visit Washington, D.C., before she goes home. CORRECT: Anne wants to visit Washington, D.C., before she goes home.

REVIEW OF STRUCTURE

190

Part A: Choose the correct answer. for more than two years, such as trees and shrubs. A perennial i s (A) any plant that it continues to grow (B) any plant i t continuing to grow (C) any plant that continues to grow (D) any plant continuing growth

Part B: Choose the incorrect word or phrase and correct it. Advertising

~ provides most of the income for magazines, newspapers, radio, and television

(A) (B) i n the United States today.

(C)

(Dl

Word choice means choosing between similar words to express precise meanings.

4

Transitive and Intransitive Verbs-Raise

and Rise

A transitive verb is a verb that takes a complement. An intransitive verb is a verb that does not take a complement. The following pairs of verbs can be confusing. Remember that raise is a transitive verb; it takes a complement. Rise is an intransitive verb; it does not take a complement.

Transitive

Intransitive

Verb word

Past

Participle

Verb word

Past

Participle

raise

raised

raised

rise

rose

risen

Remember that to raise means to move to a higher place or to cause to rise. To rise means to go up or to increase. Raise and rise are also used as nouns. A raise means an increase in salary. A rise means an increase in price, worth, quantity, or degree. .P

.

.. -

.

S

RAISE

Heavy rain Heavy rain

raises raised

the water level of the reservoir the water level of the reservoir

- 7

"

7

-

every spring last week

INCORRECT:The cost of living has raised 3 percent in the past year. CORRECT: The cost of living has risen 3 percent in the past year. INCORRECT:The flag is risen at dawn by an honor guard. C O R R E ~ The : flag is raised at dawn by an honor guard. (An honor guard raises the flag.) INCORRECT:Kay needs to rise her grades if she wants to get into graduate school. CORRECT: Kay needs to raise her grades if she wants to get into graduate school. INCORRECT:The landlord has risen the rent. CORRECT: The landlord has raised the rent. INCORRECT:The smoke that is raising from that oil refinery is black. CORRECT: The smoke that is rising from that oil refinery is black.

Part A: Choose the correct answer. The average elevation of the Himalayas is twenty thousand feet, and Mount Everest to more than twenty-nine thousand feet at its apex. (A) raises (B) rises (C) roses (D) arises Part B: Choose the incorrect word or phrase and correct it. When the temperature is risen to the burning point without a source of escape for the heat, sponta(A) (B) (C> neous combustion occurs.

(D)

Transitive and Intransitive Verbs-lay and Lie Remember that lay is a transitive verb; it takes a complement. Lie is an intransitive verb; it does not take a complement. Transitive

Intransitive

Verb word

Past

Participle

Verb word

Past

Participle

lay

laid

laid

lie

lay

lain

192

REVIEW OF STRUCTURE

Remember that to lay means to put, to place, or to cause to lie. To lie means to recline or to occupy a place. The past form of the verb to lie is lay.

INCORRECT:Her coat was laying on the chair. CORRECT: Her coat was lying on the chair. INCORRECT:I have lain your notebook on the table by the door so that you won't forget it. CORRECT: I have laid your notebook on the table by the door so that you won't forget it. INCORRECT:Key West lays off the coast of Florida. CORRECT: Key West lies off the coast of Florida. INCORRECT: Why don't you lay down for awhile? CORRECT: Why don't you lie down for awhile? INCORRECT:Linda always forgets where she lies her glasses. CORRECT: Linda always forgets where she lays her glasses.

Part A: Choose the correct answer. The geographic position of North America, in the early days of the European settlement. (A) laying between the Atlantic and the Pacific Oceans, isolating it (B) isolating it as it laid between the Atlantic and the Pacific Oceans (C) lying between the Atlantic and the Pacific Oceans, isolated it (D) isolating it between the Atlantic and the Pacific Oceans as it was layed

Part B: Choose the incorrect word or phrase and correct it. Melanin, a pigment that

under the skin,

(A) tions that occur among different races. (C) (Dl

responsible for skin color, including the varia-

(B)

dl

Transitive and Intransitive Verbs-Set

and Sit

Remember that set is a transitive verb; it takes a complement. Sit is an intransitive verb; it does not take a complement.

Transitive

Intransitive

Verb word

Past

Participle

Verb word

Past

Participle

set

set

set

sit

sat

sat

Remember that to set means to put, to place, or to cause to sit. To sit means to occupy a place on a chair or a flat surface.

INCORRECT:Please sit the telephone on the table by the bed. CORRECT: Please set the telephone on the table by the bed. INCORRECT:Won't you set down? CORRECT: Won't you sit down?

INCORRECT: Their house sets on a hill overlooking a lake. CORRECT: Their house sits on a hill overlooking a lake. INCORRECT:Let's sit your suitcases out of the way. CORRECT: Let's set your suitcases out of the way. INCORRECT:Terry has set there waiting for us for almost an hour. CORRECT:Terry has sat there waiting for us for almost an hour.

194

REVIEW OF STRUCTURE

Part A: Choose the correct answer. When Jacqueline Kennedy was first lady, she collected many beautiful antiques and them among the original pieces in the White House. (A) sat '(B) set ,(C) sit (D) sits

Part B: Choose the incorrect word or phrase and correct it. Hyde Park, the family estate of Franklin D. Roosevelt, sets on top of a bluff overlooking (A) (B) (C) the Hudson River. (Dl

4

Similar Verbs-Make and Do

Verb word

Past -

Participle

Verb word

Past -

Participle

do

did

done

make

made

made

Remember that to do and to make have similar meanings, but do is often used before complements that describe work and chores. To make is often used before complements that are derived from verbs.

DO an assignment the dishes a favor homework the laundry a paper research work

MAKE an agreement an announcement an attempt a decision a discovery an offer a profit a promise

(to agree) (to announce) (to attempt) (to decide) (to discover) (to offer) (to profit) (to promise)

I really don't mind making the homework for this class. I really don't mind doing the homework for this class. Did you do a mistake? Did you make a mistake? Please make me a favor. Please & me a favor. Are they doing progress on the new road? Are they making progress on the new road? Have you done any interesting discoveries while you were doing your research? Have you made any interesting discoveries while you were doina your research?

Part A: Choose the correct answer. The president usually (A) doesn't do a statement (B) doesn't make a statement (C) doesn't statement (D) no statement

unless his press secretary approves it.

Part B: Choose the incorrect word or phrase and correct it. A one hundred-horsepower tractor can make the work of a large number of horses. (A) (B) (C) (D)

ashamed of bored with

196

REVIEW OF STRUCTURE

idioms concerned with conscious of depend on effects on except for from now on from time to time frown on glance at, through incapable of in conflict

inferior to in the habit of

in the near future knowledge of near; next to of the opinion on top of opposite prior to regard to related to respect for responsible for similar to since until

INCORRECT:Excepting for the Gulf Coast region, most of the nation will have very pleasant weather tonight and tomorrow. CORRECT: Except for the Gulf Coast region, most of the nation will have very pleasant weather tonight and tomorrow.

INCORRECT:In recent years, educators have become more concerned of bilingualism. CORRECT: In recent years, educators have become more concerned with bilingualism. INCORRECT:He always does what he pleases, without regard of the rules and regulations. CORRECT: He always does what he pleases, without regard to the rules and regulations. INCORRECT:The bank opposite over the university isn't open on Saturdays. CORRECT: The bank opuosite the university isn't open on Saturdays. INCORRECT:The customs of other countries are not inferior with those of our own country. COR.RECT:The customs of other countries are not inferior to those of our own country.

Part A: Choose the correct answer. discovery of insulin, it was not possible to treat diabetes. (A) Prior to the (B) Prior (C) The prior (D) To prior

Part B: Choose the incorrect word or phrase and correct it. The price of gold depends in several factors, including supply and demand in relation to the value of (A) (B) (C> (D) the dollar.

Although it is usually very easy to identify the parts of speech, word families can be confusing. Word families are groups of words with similar meanings and spellings. Each word in the family is a different part of speech. For example, agreement is a noun; agreeable is an adjective; to agree is a verb. The endings of words can help you identify the parts of speech. Nouns Derived from Verbs Verb store accept insist agree authorize

Ending -age -ance -ence -ment -sion/-tion

Noun storage acceptance insistence agreement authorization

Nouns Derived from Adjectives Adjective convenient redundant opposite soft durable

Ending -ce -CY - tion -ness -tY

Noun convenience redundancy opposition softness durability

198

REVIEW OF STRUCTURE

Adjectives Derived from Nouns Noun possibility intention distance frequency juice

Ending -able/-ible -a1 -ant -ent -Y

Adjective possible intentional distant frequent juicy

Adverbs Derived from Adjectives Adjective efficient

Ending -IY

Adverb efficiently

INCORRECT:The agreeing is not legal unless everyone signs his name. CORRECT: The agreement is not legal unless everyone signs his name.

LNCORRECT: Even young children begin to show able in mathematics. CORRECT: Even young children begin to show ability in mathematics. INCORRECT:Arranging have been made for the funeral. CORRECT: Arrangements have been made for the funeral. INCORRECT:A free educating is guaranteed to every citizen. CORRECT: A free education is guaranteed to every citizen. INCORRECT:The develop of hybrids has increased yields. CORRECT: The development of hybrids has increased yields.

Part A: Choose the correct answer. Unless protected areas are established, the Bengal tiger, the blue whale, and the California condor face of extinction. (A) possible (B) the possibility (C) to be possible (D) possibly P a r t B: Choose the incorrect word o r phrase and correct it. Because blood from different individuals may different in the type of antigen on the surface of the (A) (B) red cells and the type of antibody in the plasma, a dangerous reaction can occur between the donor

(C)

and recipient in a blood transfusion. (Dl

COMPUTER TUTORIAL FOR THE STRUCTURE SECTION

199

Multiple-Choice Questions All of the questions on both the Paper-BasedTOEFL and the Computer-BasedTOEFL are multiplechoice. There are no computer-assisted questions with special directions. Although the structure questions in this book are numbered, and the answer choices are lettered A, B, C, and D, the same questions on the CD-ROM that is available to supplement the book are not numbered and lettered. You need the numbers and letters in the book to refer to the Answer Key, the Explanatory Answers, and the Transcript for the Listening section. On the CD-ROM, you can refer to other chapters by clicking on the screen. The questions on the CD-ROM are like those on the ComputerBased TOEFL. Paper-Based TOEFL

Computer-Based TOEFL

1. I f water i s heated to 121 degrees F, as steam. (A) i t will boil and escape (B) it i s boiling and escaping (C) it boil and escape (D) i t would boil and escape

If water i s heated to 121 degrees F,

~

2. If water freezes, has become (A) (B) (C) a solid. -

a

as steam. 0 i t will boil and escape O i t i s boiling and escaping 0 it boil and escape 0 i t would boil and escape

~

I f water freezes,. - a solid.

-El

-

(Dl Answer Sheet 1. 2.

m a o a

a a o a

In order to succeed on the Computer-Based TOEFL, you must understand the computer vocabulary used for the test, and you must be familiar with the icons on the computer screens that you will see on the test. First, review the vocabulary that you learned in the Tutorial for Section 1 on page 75. The same vocabulary is used for Section 2. Then study the computer screens in this Tutorial.

Testing Tools: Review of Vocab~~llary, Icons, and Keys The following words are from the list of general vocabulary for the Computer-Based TOEFL introduced in the previous chapter. Using the word list, fill in the blanks in the ten sentences.

Arrow Click Confirm Answer Dismiss Directions

Help (Question mark) Icon Mouse Mouse Pad

Next Oval Time (Clock)

200

REVIEW OF STRUCTURE

1. A

is a small control with a button on it.

2. A

is a rectangular pad where you move the mouse. is a marker on the screen that shows you where you are moving on the computer.

3. An

4. To is to depress the button on the mouse. You on the screen.

the mouse to make changes

5 . An is a small picture or word or phrase in a box. Move the arrow to the tell the computer what to do.

6. Click on

to

to remove the directions from the screen.

7. Click on an

to choose an answer to one of the multiple-choice questions.

8. Click on

, then click on

9. Click on

to see a list of the icons and directions.

10. Click on working on.

to see the next question.

to hide or show the time you have left to finish the section of the test you are

Computer Screens for Section 2 View the directions with every question

Dlrect~ons Click on the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence

The Palo Verde tree In spring.

0 has beautiful yellow blossoms

0beautiful yellow blossoms 0havlng beautiful yellow blossoms 0w~thbeautiful yellow blossoms

TIP: There are only two types of questions in Section 2.After you have read and understood the di-

rections for both types of questions in this Tutorial, you will not need to read the top part of the screen every time.

PREVIEW OF STRUCTURE ON THE NEXT GENERATION TOEFL

201

Directions: Click on the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

Insurance rates are not the same for different people because they are not likely have the same risk.

TIP: Be sure to click on Next before you click on Answer Confirm. If you do not click on these two icons in the correct order, the next question will not appear.

Sim~llationsfor Section 2 In order to prepare for the experience that you will have on the Computer-Based TOEFL, use the CD-ROM that supplements this book. Locate the Structure section on the Model Tests. The computer will simulate the Structure section on the Computer-Based TOEFL. These Model Tests are computerassisted. As part of your study plan, be sure to review all of the questions in all of the Model Tests. Use the Explanatory Answers on the CD-ROM or in Chapter 10. Refer to the Review of Structure on the CD-ROM or on pages 101-198 of this book. Finally, if you have the CD-ROM, take the Cumulative Model Test. This test is computer-adaptive, which means that the computer will select questions for you at your level of language proficiency. If you do not have a computer, you can still simulate some of the features of the Computer-Based TOEFL. Section 2 in Model Tests 1-8 in Chapter 8 of this book presents both types of questions for the Structure section randomly. This is different from the Paper-Based TOEFL. You can become accustomed to making a quick decision about the kind of answer required--completion or correction.

There is no Structure Section on the Next Generation TOEFL. However, proficiency and accuracy in grammar are factored into the scores on the Speaking and Writing Sections. Chapter 5 of this book is a grammar reference. The next edition of this book will include a new, revised structure Chapter to help you identify the most common structure errors that students make when they speak and write in response to tasks on the Next Generation TOEFL. Watch for Barron's How to Prepare for the TOEFL, 12th Edition to be published when the Next Generation TOEFL is introduced.

202

REVIEW OF STRUCTURE

Become familiar with the directions. The two types of questions will appear at random. If you forget how to answer, look at the top of the screen. Directions will appear at the top of every screen for each question. To save time, learn to recognize the format for each question type, and be ready to respond without looking at the directions. Move efficiently through the questions. In order to go to the next question, you must click on Next and then Confirm Answer. If you only click on Next, you will not be able to move to the next question. A screen will remind you to return to the previous question. You must enter an answer before you go to the next question. Click on Return to Question to move back to the question that you did not answer. Try to answer all questions without being referred to the Return to Question screen. Change your answer before you confirm it. After you click on your answer and see the dark oval or dark box, you can still change your answer. Just click on a different choice. But remember that you cannot change your answer after you click on Confirm Answer. This means that you cannot go back to previous questions and change the answers. You must choose your answer, click on your choice, click on Next, click on Confirm Answer, and move to the next question. Do your best. The computer will select the questions on this section of the test based on your responses. You will begin with questions that are considered of average difficulty. You will receive easier questions if you are not able to answer the average questions. You will receive more difficult questions if you are able to answer the average questions. You receive more points for the more difficult questions. Just do your best, and you will receive the most points for your level of structure ability. Understand the Help screen. The Help screen has a question mark on it. It is mostly designed to repeat directions. Be careful. You can waste a lot of time on this screen. If you click on Help and you want to go back to the question you were answering, look at the box in the bottom right corner. Click on Return to Where I Was. Get help from the test administrator. If you think that your computer is not performing correctly, notify one of the test administrators immediately. There should be several in the room. They cannot help you with the answers on the TOEFL, but they can help you use the computer. That is why they are there. Tell the administrator, "Excuse me. My computer won't ." Show the administrator the problem on the computer. Stay focused. There is only one test question on the screen at any time. Focus on it. If you need to rest your eyes or your neck muscles, don't look around at other people. Look down at your lap with your eyes closed. Then look up at the ceiling with your eyes closed. Then return to the question. Remember that you cannot return to previous questions, so give each question your full attention while it is on the screen. Then, get ready to focus on the next question.

ADVICE FOR SUCCESS

203

Perspective means "the way you view experiences." Have you heard the story about the teacup? Two people sit down at a table. There is only enough tea for one cup so they each have half a cup of tea to drink. One person looks at the cup and says, "Oh my, the cup is half empty." The other person looks at the cup and says, "Oh look, the cup is half full." Which kind of person are you? At this point in your review, it is easy to become discouraged. However, if you choose the "half full" perspective, you will have more energy to continue your studies. Yes, there is certainly a lot to review. If you know half of the problems, you have a choice. You can say, "Oh my, I know only half of this." Instead you can say, "Oh look, I already know half of this!" You choose. My advice is believe in yourself. Don't look at the long distance yet to travel. Celebrate the long distance that you have already traveled. Then you will have the energy and the courage to keep going.

REVIEW OF READING

OVERVIEW OF THE READING SECTION

207

QlllCK COMPARISON-READING PAPER-BASED TOEFL, COMPUTER-BASED TOEFL, AND NEXT GENERATION TOEFL Paper-Based TOEFL

Computer-Based TOEFL

Next Generation TOEFL

There are five reading passages with an average of 10 questions after each passage.

There are three to six reading passages with an average of 6 to 10 questions after each passage.

There are three reading passages with an average of 12-1 3 questions after each passage.

The passages are about 250-300 words in length.

The passages are about 350-450 words in length.

The passages are about 700-800 words in length.

Everyone taking the TOEFL answers the same questions.

You will have the same questions as others who take the same form of the test.

You will answer the same questions as others who take the same form of the test.

There are no pictures or visual cues.

There may be pictures in the text and questions that refer to the content of the reading passage.

There may be pictures in the text and questions that refer to the content of the reading passage.

All of the questions are multiple-choice.

Most of the questions are multiple-choice, but some of the questions have special directions on the screen.

Most of the questions are multiplechoice, but some of the questions have special directions.

Every question has only one answer.

Some of the questions have two or more answers.

Some of the questions have two or more answers.

You answer on a paper Answer Sheet, filling in ovals marked O, @D,0 ,and a.

You click on the screen in the oval that corresponds to the answer you have chosen, or you follow the directions on the screen.

You click on the screen in the oval that corresponds to the answer you have chosen, or you follow the directions on the screen.

You can return to previous passages and questions, erase, and change answers on your answer sheet.

You can return to previous passages and questions, change answers, and answer questions you have left blank.

You can return to previous questions, change answers, and answer questions you have left blank, but you cannot return to a previous passage.

There is NO glossary.

There is NO glossary.

There may be a glossary of technical terms.

You may not take notes.

You may not take notes.

You may take notes while you read.

208

REVIEW OF READING

The Reading Section of the TOEFL tests your ability to understand written English as it is presented in textbooks and other academic materials in North America. This section is included in the PaperBased TOEFL, the Computer-Based TOEFL, and the Next Generation TOEFL. The section is different for each of the three TOEFL formats. a

Paper-Based TOEFL (PBT) The directions for the Paper-Based TOEFL are reprinted with the permission of Educational Testing Servke (ETS) from the official Information Bulletin for the Supplemental Paper-Based TOEFL.

Section 3

- Reading Comprehension

This section is designed to measure your ability to read and understand short passages similar in topic and style to those that students are likely to encounter in North American universities and colleges. This section contains reading passages and questions about the passages. Directions: In this section you will read several passages. Each one is followed by a number of questions about it. You are to choose the one best answer, (A), (B), (C), or (D), to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Answer all questions about the information in a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.

Read the following passage: The railroad was not the first institution to impose regularity on society, or to draw attention to the importance of precise timekeeping..For as long as merchants have set out their wares at Linedaybreak and communal festivities have been celebrated, people (5) have been in rough agreement with their neighbors as to the time of day. The value of this tradition is today more apparent than ever. Were it not for public acceptance of a single yardstick of time, social life would be unbearably chaotic: the massive daily transfers of goods, services, and information would proceed in fits and (10)starts; the very fabric of modern society would begin to unravel.

Example I

Sample Answer

What is the main idea of the passage? 0 C O - B (A) In modefn society we must make more time for our neighbors. (B) The waditions of society are timeless. (C) An accepted way of measuring time is essential for the smooth functioning of society. (D)Society judges people by the times at which they conduct certain activities. The main idea of the passage is that societies need to agree about how time is to be measured in order to function smoothly. Therefore, you should choose answer (C). Example I1

Sample Answer

In line 6, the phrase "this tradition" refers to

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(A) the practice of starting the business day at dawn (B) friendly relations between neighbors (C) the railroad's reliance on time schedules (D) people's agreement on the measurement of time The phrase "this tradition" refers to the preceding clause, "people have been in rough agreement with their neighbors as to the time of day." Therefore, you should choose answer (D).

OVERVIEW OF THE READING SECTION

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Computer-Based TOEFL (CBT) The directions for the Computer-Based TOEFL are reprinted with the permission of Educational Testing Service (ETS) from the official Information Bulletin for the Computer-Based TOEFL. This section measures the ability to read and understand short passages similar in topic and style to those that students are likely to encounter in North American universities and colleges. This section contains reading passages and questions about the passages. There are several different types of questions in this section. In the Reading section, you will first have the opportunity to read the passage. .

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The temperature of the Sun IS over 10,000 degrees Fahrenheit at the surface, but ~tnses to -' perhaps more than 27,000,000° at the center The Sun IS so much hotter than the Earth that matter can exlst only as a gas, except perhaps at the core In the core of the Sun, the pressures are so great that, desp~te the hlgh temperature, there may be a small solid core. However, no one really knows, slnce the center of the Sun can never be directly obsewed. Solar astronomers do know that the Sun is dtvlded into flve general layers or zones. Startlng at the outslde and golng down lnto the Sun, the zones are the corona, chromosphere, photosphere, convection zone, and finally the core The flrst three zones are regarded as the Sun's atmosphere But slnce the Sun has no solid surface, ~tIS hard to tell where the atmosphere ends and the main body of the Sun beglns. The Sun's outermost layer beglns about 10,000 mlles above the vlslble surface and goes outward for mllllons of mlles. Thls IS the only part of the Sun that can be seen during an eclipse such as the one ~n February 1979 At any other tlme, the corona can be seen only when speclal instruments are used on

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atmosphere ends and the main body of the Sun begins. The Sun's outermost layer begins about 10,000 miles above the visible surface and goes outward for millions of miles. This is the only part of the Sun that can be seen during an eclipse such as the one in F e b ~ a r y1979. At any other time, the corona can be seen only when special instruments are used on cameras and telescopes to block the light from the photosphere. The corona is a brilliant, pearly white, filmy light, about as bright as the full Moon. Its beautiful rays are a sensational sight during an eclipse. The corona's rays flash out in a brilliant fan that has wispy spikelike rays near the Sun's north and south poles. The corona is generally thickest at the Sun's equator. The corona is made up of gases streaming outward at tremendous speeds that reach a temperature of more than 2 million degrees Fahrenheit. The gas thins out as it reaches the space around the planets. By the time the gas of the corona reaches the Earth it has a relatively low density.

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REVIEW OF READING

When you have finished reading the passage, you will use the mouse to click on Proceed. Then the questions about the passage will be presented. You are to choose the one best answer to each question. Answer all questions about the information in a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage. Most of the questions will be multiple-choice questions. To answer these questions, you will click on a choice below the question. Here is an example.

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However, no one really knows, since the center of the Sun can never be directly observed. -+ Solar astronomers do know that the Sun is divided into five general layers or zones. Starting at the outside and going down into the sun, the zones are the corona, chromosphere, photosphere, convection zone, and finally the core. The first three zones are regarded as the Sun's atmosphere. But since the Sun has no solid surface, it is hard to tell where the atmosphere ends and the main body of the Sun begins. The Sun's outermost layer begins about 10,000 miles above the visible surface and goes outward for millions of miles. This is the only part of the Sun that can be seen during an eclipse such as the one in February 1979. At any other time, the corona can be seen only when special instruments are used on cameras and telescopes to block the light from the photosphere. The corona is a brilliant, pearly white, filmy light, about as bright as the full Moon. Its beautiful rays are a sensational sight during an eclipse. The corona's rays flash out in a brilliant fan that has wispy spikelike rays near the Sun's north and south poles.

With what topic is .paragraph 2 mainly . - . concerned?

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0 How the Sun evolved 0 'The structure of the Sun 0 Why scientists study the Sun 0 The distance of the Sun from the planets Paragraph 2 is marked with an arrow [ -1.

The oval darkens to show which answer you have chosen. To choose a different answer, click on a different oval. The correct answer is indicated on the screen below.

ona is a brilliant, pearly white, filmy light, as bright as the full Moon. Its beautiful rays sensational sight during an eclipse. The a's rays flash out in a brilliant fan that has wispy ike rays near the Sun's north and south poles.

OVERVIEW OF THE READING SECTION

211

You will see the next question after you click on Next. To answer some questions, you will click on a word or phrase. Here is an example.

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Solar astronomers do know that the Sun is divided into five general layers or zones. Starling at the outside and going down into the sun, the zones are the corona, chiomosphere, photosphere, convection zone, and finally the core. The first three zones are regarded as the Sun's atmosphere. But since the Sun has no solid surface, it is hard to tell where the atmosphere ends and the main body of the Sun begins. The Sun's outermost layer begins about 10,000 miles above the visible surface and goes outward for millions of miles.This is the only part of the Sun that can be seen during an eclipse such as t h e m i n February 1979. At any other time, the corona can be seen only when special instruments are used on cameras and telescopes to block the light from the photosphere. The corona is a brilliant, pearly white, filmy light, about as bright as the full Moon. Its beautiful rays are a sensational sight during an eclipse. The

Look at the wordPMiJin the passage. Click on the word or phrase in the bold text that)llll( refers to.

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To answer, you can click on any part of the word or phrase in the passage. Your choice will darken to show which word you have chosen. The correct answer is indicated on the screen below.

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zone, and finally the core. The first three zones are regarded as the Sun's atmosphere. But since the Sun has no solid surface, it is hard to tell where the atmosphere ends and the main body of the Sun begins. The Sun's outermost layer begins about 10,000 miles above the visible surface and goes outward for millions of miles.This is the only part of the Sun that can be seen during an -such as t h e m i n February 1979. At any other time, the corona can be seen only when special instruments are used on cameras and telescopes to block the light from the photosphere. The corona is a brilliant, pearly white, filmy light, about as bright as the full Moon. Its beautiful rays are a sensational sight during an eclipse. The

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REVIEW OF READING

see the next question after you click on Next. To answer some questions, you will click on a in the passage. Here is an example.

You can click on any part of the sentence in the passage. The sentence will darken to show which answer you have chosen. The correct answer is indicated below.

Click on the sentence in paragraph 4 or 5 in which the author compares the light of the Sun's outermost layer to that of another astronomical body. spikelike rays near the Sun's north and south poles. The corona is generally thickest at the Sun's equator. + The corona is made up of gases streaming outward at tremendous speeds that reach a temperature of more than 2 million degrees Fahrenheit. The gas thins out as it reaches the space around the planets. By the time the gas of the corona reaches the Earth it has a relatively low

You will see the next question after you click on Next.

OVERVIEW OF THE READING SECTION

213

To answer some questions, you will click on a square to add a sentence to the passage. Here is an example.

xist only as a gas, except perhaps at the core. In the ore of the Sun, the pressures are so great that,

At the center of the Earth's solar system lies the Sun. Where would it best fit in

Solar astronomers do know that the Sun is

no solid surface, it is hard to tell where the ere ends and the main body of the Sun

When you click on a square, the sentence will appear in the passage at the place you have chosen. You can see if this is the best place to add the sentence, and you can click on another square to change your answer. The sentence will be added and shown in a dark box. The correct answer is indicated on the screen below.

solar system lies the Sun. Where would it best fit in

Solar astronomers do know that the Sun is

rded as the Sun's atmosphere. But since the has no solid surface, it is hard to tell where the

seen during an edipse such as the one in

ry 1979. At any other time, the corona can

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REVIEW OF READING

Next Generation TOEFL / There are two types of tasks included in the Reading Section: independent reading tasks and integrated reading tasks.

Independent Reading Directions: There are between 36 and 39 questions in three independent reading passages on the Next Generation TOEFL. Each passage is about 800 words in length. You may take notes as you read. The topics are all academic. After each passage, you will answer 12 or 13 comprehension questions. The comprehension questions are either multiple-choice with four possible answer choices or computerassisted with special directions on the screen. After every multiple-choice question, choose the best answerchoice from four possible answers. After every computer-assisted question, follow the special directions on the screen to complete the answer. It takes 25 minutes to complete each reading and to answer 12 or 13 comprehension questions about it. There are three independent reading passages. In the Reading Section you will first have the opportunity to read the passage. This is an example of an independent reading passage.

The Developmental Stages of Infancy Although each baby has an individual schedule of motor development, general patterns of growth have been observed. These patterns present themselves as a result of the maturation of the motor area in the brain and the rate at which the infant's body structures and muscles develop. Researchers in child development have proposed various theories, but most have divided the stages into three basic periods of development, including early infancy, which extends from the first to the sixth month; middle infancy, from the sixth to the ninth month; and late infancy, from the ninth to the fiteenth month. As the brain develops, the lower structures that control reflexes mature before the higher structures such as the cerebral cortex that influences higherorder thinking. By the time that various muscles in the neck, trunk, arms, and legs come under control,

You will use the scroll bar to continue reading the passage.

OVERVIEW OF THE READING SECTION

the older infant is prepared mentally as well as physically to perform more difficult tasks. Since the order of maturation within the brain and body structure is generally the same for all babies, the sequence of physical skills is usually the same as well. The newborn is concerned with his or her inner world, responding primarily to hunger and pain. Instinctive behaviors and reflexes like rooting and sucking become more reliable through repetition, governing its movements in response to stimuli. In contrast, by early infancy, the baby is, for the most part, aware of the surrounding world. During the second month, many infants are awake more and can raise their heads to look at things. They also begin to smile at people as their visual focus and perceptual abilities improve. Sometime between two and three months, a universal pattern of staring at the hand seems to occur. The frequency and length of time spent on this activity increases, eventually

Continue to use the scroll bar to read the passage.

leading to swiping at objects. Hand regard, as it is sometimes referred to, is perhaps the first step in intellectual curiosity and problem solving. By four months, the baby is routinely holding its head up for several minutes, it is able to roll over, and it begins deliberate, more coordinated activities such as searching for things, although it may not yet be able to grasp them effectively with its hands. The fourmonth-old is beginning to show preferences for people and objects, and is especially responsive to familiar faces. It is also beginning to be wary of strangers and may scream when a visiting relative tries to pick it up. By five months, the baby is able to sit unaided, grabbing objects and putting them into its mouth. By doing this, the baby is demonstrating coordination of several systems of behavior. In the first place, before reaching, the object must be visually located, and if it is moving, it must be tracked, then the arm must move accurately and the hand and fingers must

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cooperate to accomplish a successful grasping motion. Finally, the hand and fingers must be able to hold the weight of the object while the eyes examine it. In many instances, the wrist will move the object back and forth, twisting it so that it can be viewed in several different positions. Many babies use both hands, and, at this point, some babies are already trying to feed themselves with their hands. In addition, they discover their feet, and begin to kick, using the larger leg muscles. In middle infancy, the baby concentrates on practicing a great many speech sounds. Babbling becomes a part of play. It also loves to imitate actions and examine interesting objects more closely. At about seven months, the baby begins to crawl, a skill that it masters at the end of middle infancy. In late

Continue to use the scroll bar to read the passage.

has significant control over head and hand movements, can examine objects within its reach, and even has the ability to turn its body in a rolling motion. The problem for an infant in the late stage is that there are many objects that are in the field of vision but not in the area of reach. The incredible curiosity exhibited by babies is equaled by their effort to master locomotion. Progress toward walking moves through standing, pulling up, balancing, and bouncing in place. Walking with the support of furniture allows the baby to engage in "cruising," that is, moving about unaided by caretakers, but supported by objects. Finally, being led by others allows the baby to release its hold on objects and begin to walk independently. An important implication of this sequence of accomplishments is the increasing independence that allows older infants to imitate adults and explore their environments. It has been observed that the body parts involved in each of the stages proceeds from the . .

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OVERVIEW OF THE READING SECTION

head and goes down the body, a sequence that is referred to as cephabcauda. Clearly, the brain and the eyes must develop first for the baby to orient itself. the neck muscles to k e e its ~ head u~riaht, , " . the arms and hands to grasp and bull up, the torso and finally, the legs to complete the motions required for walking. As soon as the baby walks well alone, it has passed from infancy into the active toadler stage.

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There may be a glossary to help you understand technical terms.

Glossary: cephalocaudal: from the head to the tail locomotion: ability to move from place to place

When you have finished reading the passage, you will click on Proceed. Then the questions about the passage will be presented. Follow the directions on the screen to answer the questions.

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REVIEW OF READING

$xe is an example of the passage with question references and questions:

The wordin the passage is closest in meaning to 0often 0naturally 0 for the most part 0in a loud way

As the brain develops, the lower structures that control reflexes mature before the higher structures such as the cerebral cortex that influences higherorder thinking. By the time that various muscles in the neck, trunk, arms, and legs come under control, the older infant is prepared mentally as well as physically to perform more difficult tasks. Since the order of maturation within the brain and body structure is generally the same for all babies, the sequence of physical skills is usually the same as well. The newborn iszoncerned with his or her inner world, responding,@rimarily to hunger and pain. Instinctive behaviors and reflexes like rooting and sucking become more reliable through repetition, governing its movements in response to stimuli. In contrast, by early infancy, the baby is, for the most part, aware of the surrounding world. During the second month, many infants are awake more and can raise their heads to look at things. They also

The correct answer is indicated below.

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The word in the passage is closest in meaning to 0 often 0 naturally 0 for the most part 0 in a loud way

As the brain develops, the lower structures that control reflexes mature before the higher structures such as the cerebral cortex that influences higherorder thinking. By the time that various muscles in the neck, trunk, arms, and legs come under control, the older infant is prepared mentally as well as physically to perform more difficult tasks. Since the order of maturation within the brain and body structure is generally the same for all babies, the sequence of physical skills is usually the same as well. The newborn is concerned with his or her inner world, responding'pzmaiily to hunger and pain. Instinctive behaviors and reflexes like rooting and sucking become more reliable through repetition, governing its movements in response to stimuli. In contrast, by early infancy, the baby is, for the most part, aware of the surrounding world. During the second month, many infants are awake more and can raise their heads to look at things. They also

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OVERVIEW OF THE READING SECTION

According to paragraph 2, what behavior signals the beginning of higher-level thinking? O Smiling at people

0Staring at the hand 0 Holding up the head

0 Showing preferences

part, aware of the surrounding world. During the second month, many infants are awake more and can raise their heads to look at things. They also begin to smile at people as their visual focus and perceptual abilities improve. Sometime between two and three months, a universal pattern of staring at the hand seems to occur. The frequency and length of time spent on this activity increases, eventually leading to swiping at objects. Hand regard, as it is sometimes referred to, is perhaps the first step in intellectual curiosity and problem solving. By four months, the baby is routinely holding its head up for several minutes, it is able to roll over, and it begins deliberate, more coordinated activities such as searching for things, although it may not yet be able to grasp them effectively with its hands. The fourmonth-old is beginning to show preferences for people and objects, and is especially responsive to familiar faces. It is also beginning to be wary of strangers and may scream when a visiting relative tries to pick it up. .

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The correct answer is indicated below.

According to paragraph 2, what behavior signals the beginning of higher-level thinking? 0 Smiling at people 0 Staring at the hand

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0 Showing preferences

part, aware of the surrounding world. During the second month, many infants are awake more and can raise their heads to look at things. They also begin to smile at people as their visual focus and perceptual abilities improve. Sometime between two and three months, a universal pattern of staring at the hand seems to occur. The frequency and length of time spent on this activity increases, eventually leading to swiping at objects. Hand regard, as it is sometimes referred to, is perhaps the first step in intellectual curiosity and problem solving. By four months, the baby is routinely holding its head up for several minutes, it is able to roll over, and it begins deliberate, more coordinatedactivities such as searching for things, although it may not yet be able to grasp them effectively with its hands. The fourmonth-old is beginning to show preferenms for people and objects, and is especially responsive to familiar faces. It is also beginning to be wary of strangers and may scream when a visiting relative tries to pick it up.

+

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REVIEW OF READING

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Which of the sentences below best expresses the information in the highlighted statement in the passage? The other choices change the meaning or leave out important information. 0 The active toddler phase begins when the baby begins to walk alone. 0 Walking alone is the active stage of infancy before the toddler stage.

0Babies who walk alone are more active when they are toddlers. 0 When a baby walks past infants, it starts to play actively with toddlers

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to master locomot~on.Progress toward walking moves through standing, pulling up, balancing, and bouncing in place. Walking with the support of furniture allows the baby to engage in cruising. that is, moving about unaided by caretakers, but supported by objects. Finally, being led by others allows the baby to release its hold on objects and begin to walk independently.An important implication of this sequence of accomplishments is the increasing independence that allows older infants to imitate adults and explore their environments. It has been observed that the body parts involved in each of the stages proceeds from the head and goes down the body, a sequence that is referred to as cephalocaudal. Clearly, the brain and the eyes must develop first for the baby to orient itself, the neck muscles to keep its head upright, the arms and hands to grasp and pull up, the torso and finally, the legs to complete the motions required for walking. ' w s o m e 'b;gwwTkS w e ~ a l o n ~ . ~ i f i a ~ --,"-. passedtrom infancy into the active toddler stage.

The correct answer is indicated below,

best expresses the information in the highlighted statement in the passage? The other choices change the meaning or leave out important information. 0 The active toddler phase

begins when the baby begins to walk alone. 0 Walking alone is the active stage of infancy before the toddler stage. 0 Babies who walk alone are more active when they are toddlers.

0When a baby walks past infants, it starts to play actively with toddlers.

to master locomotion. Progress toward walking moves through standing, pulling up, balanc~ng,and bouncing in place. Walking with the support of furniture allows the baby to engage in cruising, that is, moving about unaided by caretakers, but supported by objects. Finally, being led by others allows the baby to release its hold on objects and begin to walk independently.An important implication of this sequence of accomplishments is the increasing independence that allows older infants to imitate adults and explore their environments. It has been observed that the body parts involved in each of the stages proceeds from the head and goes down the body, a sequence that is referred to as cephalocaudal. Clearly, the brain and the eyes must develop first for the baby to orient itself, the neck muscles to keep its head upright, the arms and hands to grasp and pull up, the torso and finally, the legs to complete the motions required for walking. ATsoGE~~ R e baFy G a l s weal one.^^ ~. passed%om infancy into the active toddler stage.

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OVERVIEW OF THE READING SECTION

Four squares q indicate where the following sentence can be added to the passage. At three months, they are also able to focus better, following people and objects that interest them.

Where would the sentence best fit into the passage?

can raise their heads to look at things. They also begin to smile at people as their visual focus and perceptual abilities improve.0 Sometime between two and three months, a universal pattern of staring at the hand seems to occur. The frequency and length of time spent on this activity increases, eventually leading to swiping at objects. Hand regard, as it is sometimes referred to, is perhaps the first step in intellectual curiosity and problem solving.0 By four months, the baby is routinely holding its head up for .several minutes, it is able to roll over, and it begins deliberate, more coordinatedactivities such as searching for things, although it may not yet be able to grasp them effectively with its hands. The fourmonth-old is beginning to show preferences for people and objects, and is especially responsive to familiar faces. It is also beginning to be wary of strangers and may scream when a visiting relative tries to pick it up. By five months, the baby is able to sit unaided, grabbing objects and putting them into its mouth. By

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When you click on a square, the sentence will appear in the passage at the place you have chosen. The correct answer is indicated below.

Four squares indicate where the following sentence can be added to the passage. At three months, they are also able to focus better, following people and objects that interest them.

Where would the sentence best fit into the passage?

can raise their heads to look at things. They also begin to smile at people as their visual focus and perceptual abilities improve.0 Sometime between two and three months, a universal pattern of staring at the hand seems to occur. The frequency and length of time spent on this activity increases, eventually leading to swiping at objects. Hand regard, as it is sometimes referred to. is Derha~sthe first s t e ~ in

ub for several minutes, it is able lo rill over,-and it begins deliberate, more coordinated activities such as searching for things, although it may not yet be able to grasp them effectively with its hands. The four-month-old is beginning to show preferences for people and objects, and is especially responsive to familiar faces.0 It is also beginning to be wary of strangers and may scream when a visiting relative tries to pick it up.0

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REVIEW OF READING

Complete a summary of the passage by choosing THREE answer choices that express the most important ideas.

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The maturation of the brain and body structure predisposes development. Late stage infants are interested in objeds they can see, but not yet retrieve. Basic developmental skills are universaliy achieved in about the same order in three stages of infancy. Newboms react to stimuli with instinctive responses and reflexes. Motor development is accomplishedfrom the head down through the body. When babies first learn to walk, they explore, but then return to caretakers. .- .

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Although eachbabyhasan individualschedule of motor development, generalpanems of growth have been observed.

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The Developmental Stages of Infancy Although each baby has an individual schedule of motor development, general patterns of growth have been observed. These patterns present themselves as a result of the maturation of the motor area in the brain and the rate at which the infant's body structures and muscles develop. Researchers in child development have proposed various theories, but most have divided the stages into three basic periods of development, including early infancy, which extends from the first to the sixth month; middle infancy, from the sixth to the ninth month; and late infancy, from the ninth to the fifteenth month. As the brain develops, the lower structures that control reflexes mature before the higher structures such as the cerebral cortex that influences higherorder thinking. By the time that various muscles in the neck, trunk, arms, and legs come under control,

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When you click on a sentence, the sentence will appear in bold. The correct answer is indicated below.

The maturation of the brain

Although each baby has an individual schedule of

Late stage infants are see, but not yet retrieve.

extends from the first to the sixth month; middle

As the brain develops, the lower structures that control reflexes mature before the higher structures

REVIEW OF PROBLEMS AND QUESTIONS FOR THE READING SECTION

223

Integrated Reading Directions: I n the integrated reading tasks, you will read and respond to campus and textbook reading passages. You may take notes. After each reading, you will hear or see a question that requires you to respond by speaking or writing. Integrated examples are shown i n the Directions and Examples for Speaking in Chapter 4 and the Directions and Examples for Writing i n Chapter 7.

This Review can be used to prepare for the Paper-Based TOEFL, the Computer-Based TOEFL, and the Next Generation TOEFL. For the most part, the same types of problems are tested on all three formats. Most of the questions are multiple-choice. Some of the questions on the Computer-Based TOEFL and the Next Generation TOEFL are computer-assisted. Although the computer-assisted questions in this book are numbered, and the answer choices are lettered A, B, C, and D, the same questions on the CD-ROM that supplements the book are not numbered and lettered. You need the numbers and letters in the book to refer to the Answer Key, the Explanatory Answers, and the Transcript for the Listening Section. On the CD-ROM, you can refer to other chapters by clicking on the screen. The computer-assisted questions have special directions on the screen.

Problems like those in this Review frequently appear on the Reading Section of the TOEFL. To prepare for the Reading Section of the TOEFL, study the problems in this chapter.

Previewing

Identifying Exceptions

Reading for Main Ideas

Locating References

Using Contexts for Vocabulary

Referring to the Passage

Scanning for Details

Reading Faster

Making Inferences

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previewing

Research shows that it is easier to understand what you are reading, if you begin with a general idea of what the passage is about. Previewing helps you form a general idea of the topic in your mind. To preview, read the first sentence of each paragraph and the last sentence of the passage. You should do this a s quickly a s possible. Remember, you are not reading for specific information, but for an impression of the topic.

DIRECTIONS: Preview the following passage. Focus on the first sentence in each paragraph and the last sentence of the passage. Can you identify the topic? Check your answer using the key on page 485. A black hole is a region of space created by the total gravitational collapse of matter. It is so intense that nothing, not even light or radiation, can escape. In other words, it is a one-way surface through which matter can fall inward but cannot emerge.

Some astronomers believe that a black hole may be formed when a large star collapses inward from its own weight. So long as they are emitting heat and light into space, stars support themselves against their own gravitational pull with the outward thermal pressure generated by heat from nuclear reactions deep in their interiors. But if a star eventually exhausts its nuclear fuel, then its unbalanced gravitational attraction could cause it to contract and collapse. Furthermore, it could begin to pull in surrounding matter, including nearby comets and planets, creating a black hole.

a

Reading for Main Meas

By previewing, you can form a general idea of what a reading passage is about; that is, you identify the topic. By reading for main ideas, you identify the point of view of the author-that is, what the writer's thesis is. Specifically, what does the author propose to write about the topic? If you could reduce the reading to one sentence, what would it be? Questions about the main idea can be worded in many ways. For example, the following questions are all asking for the same information: (1) What is the main idea? (2) What is the subject? (3) What is the topic? (4) What would be a good title?

DIRECTIONS: The main idea usually occurs at the beginning of a reading passage. Look at the first two sentences in the following passage. Can you identify the main idea? What would be a good title for this passage? Check your answers using the key on page 485.

READING COMPREHENSION: PROBLEM 4

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For more than a century, despite attacks by a few opposing scientists, Charles Darwin's theory of evolution by natural selection has stood firm. Now, however, some respected biologists are beginning to question whether the theory accounts for major developments such as the shift from water to land habitation. Clearly, evolution has not proceeded steadily but has progressed by radical advances. Recent research in molecular biology, particularly in the study of DNA, provides us with a new possibility. Not only environmental change but also genetic codes in the underlying structure of DNA could govern evolution.

4

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Before you can use a context, you must understand what a context is. In English, a context is the combination of vocabulary and grammar that surrounds a word. Context can be a sentence or a paragraph or a passage. Context helps you make a general prediction about meaning. If you know the general meaning of a sentence, you also know the general meaning of the words in the sentence. Making predictions from contexts is very important when you are reading a foreign language. In this way, you can read and understand the meaning of a passage without stopping to look up every new word in a dictionary. On an examination like the TOEFL, dictionaries are not permitted in the room.

EXERCISE DLRECTIONS: Read the following passage, paying close attention to the underlined words. Can you understand their meanings from the context without using a dictionary? Check your answers using the key on page 485. At the age of sixty-six, Harland Sanders had to auction off everything he owned in order to pay his debts:Once the successful proprietor of a large restaurant, Sanders saw his business suffer from the construction of a new freeway that bypassed his establishment and rerouted the traffic that had formerly passed. With an income of only $105 a month in Social Security, he packed his car with a pressure cooker, some chickens, and sixty pounds of the seasoning that he had developed for frying chicken. He stopped at restaurants, where he cooked chicken for owners to sample. If they liked it, he offered to show them how to cook it. Then he sold them the seasoning and collected a royalty of four cents on each chicken they cooked. The rest is history. Eight years later, there were 638 Kentucky Fried Chicken franchises, and Colonel Sanders had sold his business again-this time for over two million dollars.

After reading a passage on the TOEFL, you will be expected to answer six to ten questions. Most of them are multiple-choice. First, read a question and find the important content words. Content words are usually nouns, verbs, or adjectives. They are called content words because they contain the content or meaning of a sentence.

226

REVIEW OF READING

Next, let your eyes travel quickly over the passage for the same content words or synonyms of the words. This is called scanning. By scanning, you can find a place in the reading passage where the answer to a question is found. Finally, read those specific sentences carefully and choose the answer that corresponds to the meaning of the sentences you have read.

DIRECTIONS: First, read the following passage. Then, read the quest!ons after the reading passage, and look for the content words. Finally, scan the passage for the same words or synonyms. Can you answer the questions? Check your answers using the key on pages 485-486.

To prepare for a career in engineering, a student must begin planning in high school. Mathematics and science should form the core curriculum. For example, in a school where sixteen credit hours are required for high school graduation, four should be in mathematics, one each in chemistry, biology, and physics. The remaining credits should include four in English and at least three in the humanities and social sciences. The average entering freshman in engineering should have achieved at least a 2.5 grade point average on a 4.0 scale in his or her high school. Although deficiencies can be corrected during the first year, the student who needs additional work should expect to spend five instead of four years to complete a degree. 1. What is the average grade point for an entering freshman in engineering? 2. When should a student begin planning for a career in engineering?

3. How can a student correct deficiencies in preparation? 4. How many credits should a student have in English?

5. How many credits are required for a high school diploma?

Sometimes, in a reading passage, you will find a direct statement of fact. That is called evidence. But other times, you will not find a direct statement. Then you will need to use the evidence you have to make an inference. An inference is a logical conclusion based on evidence. It can be about the passage

itself or about the author's viewpoint.

DIRECTJONS: First,

read the following passage. Then, read the questions after the passage, and make inferences. Can you find the evidence for your inference in the reading passage? Check your answers using the key on page 486. When an acid is dissolved in water, the acid molecule divides into two parts, a hydrogen ion and another ion. An ion is an atom or a group of atoms that has an electrical charge. The charge can be either positive or negative. If hydrochloric acid is mixed with water, for example, it divides into hydrogen ions and chlorine ions.

READING COMPREHENSION: PROBLEM 6

227

A strong acid ionizes to a great extent, but a weak acid does not ionize so much. The strength of an acid, therefore, depends on how much it ionizes, not on how many hydrogen ions are produced. It is interesting that nitric acid and sulfuric acid become greatly ionized whereas boric acid and carbonic acid do not.

1. What kind of acid is sulfuric acid?

2. What kind of acid is boric acid?

After reading a passage on the TOEFL,you will be asked to select from four possible answers the one that is NOT mentioned in the reading. Use your scanning skills to locate related words and phrases in the passage and the answer choices.

DIRECTIONS:First, read the following passage. Then, read the question after the reading passage. Last. scan the passage again for related words and phrases. Try to eliminate three of the choices. Check your answer using the key on pages 486-487. All music consists of two elements--expression and design. Expression is inexact and subjective and may be enjoyed in a personal or instinctive way. Design, on the other hand, is exact and must be analyzed objectively in order to be understood and appreciated. The folk song, for example, has a definite musical design that relies on simple repetition with a definite beginning and ending. A folk song generally consists of one stanza of music repeated for each stanza of verse. Because of their communal, and usually uncertain origin, folk songs are often popular verse set to music. They are not always recorded and tend to be passed on in a kind of musical version of oral history. Each singer revises and perfects the song. In part as a consequence of this continuous revision process, most folk songs are almost perfect in their construction and design. A particular singer's interpretation of the folk song may provide an interesting expression, but the simple design that underlies the song itself is stable and enduring.

1. All of the following are true of a folk song EXCEPT (A) there is a clear start and finish (B) the origin is often not known (C) the design may change in the interpretation (D) simple repetition is characteristic of its design

228

REVIEW OF READING

After reading a passage on the TOEFL, you will be asked to find the antecedent of a pronoun. An antecedent is a word or phrase to which a pronoun refers. Usually, you will be given a pronoun such as "it," "its," "them," or-"their,"and you will be asked to locate the reference word or phrase in the passage. Firsf, find the pronoun in the passage. Then read the sentence using the four answer choices in place of the pronoun. The meaning of the sentence in the context of the passage will not change when you substitute the correct antecedent.

DIRECTIONS: First, find the pronoun in the following passage. Next, start reading several sentences before the sentence in which the pronoun is found, and continue reading several sentences after it. Then, substitute the words or phrases in the answer choices. Which one does not change the meaning of the sentence? Check your answer using the key on page 487. The National Road, also known as the Cumberland Road, was constructed in the early 1800s to provide transportation between the establkhed commercial areas of the East and Northwest Temtory. By 1818, the road had reached Wheeling, West Virginia, 130 miles from point of origin in Cumberland, Maryland. The cost was a monumental thirteen thousand dollars per mile. Upon reaching the Ohio River, the National Road became one of the major trade routes to the western states and territories, providing Baltimore with a trade advantage over neighboring cities. In order to compete, New York state authorized the construction of the Erie Canal, and Philadelphia initiated a transportation plan to l i n k T with Pittsburgh. Towns along the rivers, canals, and the new National Road became important trade centers.

1. The word fE refers to (A) the Northwest Territory (B) 1818 (C) the road (D) Wheeling, West Virginia

a

2. The wordTrefers to (A) plan (B) construction (C) canal (D) transportation

Referring to the Passage

After reading the passage on the TOEFL, you will be asked to find certain information in the passage, and identify it by line number or paragraph. First, read the question. Then refer to the line numbers and paragraph numbers in the answer choices to scan for the information in the question.

READING COMPREHENSION: PROBLEM 8

229

DIRECTIONS: First, read the following passage. Then, refer back to the passage. Can you find the correct reference? Check your answer using the key on page 487. In September of 1929, traders experienced a lack of confidence in the stock market's ability to continue its phenomenal rise. Prices fell. For many inexperienced investors, the drop produced a panic. They had all their money tied up in the market, and they were pressed to sell before the prices fell even lower. Sell orders were coming in so fast that the ticker tape at the New York Stock Exchange could not accommodate all the transactions. To try to reestablish confidence in the market, a powerful group of New York bankers agreed to pool their funds and purchase stock above current market values. Although the buy orders were minimal, they were counting on their reputations to restore confidence on the part of the smaller investors, thereby affecting the number of sell orders. On Thursday, October 24, Richard Whitney, the Vice President of the New York Stock Exchange and a broker for the J.P. Morgan Company, made the effort on their behalf. Initially, it appeared to have been successful, then, on the following Tuesday, the crash began again and accelerated. By 1932, stocks were worth only twenty percent of their value at the 1929 high. The results of the crash had extended into every aspect of the economy, causing a long and painful depression, referred to in American history as the Great Depression. 1. Where in the passage does the author refer to the reason for the stock market crash?

2. Where in the passage does the author suggest that there was a temporary recovery in the stock market?

230

REVIEW OF READING

Read the following passage, using the skills you have learned. Preview, read for main ideas, and use contexts for vocabulary. To read faster, read phrases instead of words. Try to see an entire line of text when you focus your eyes on the passage. Scan for details and evidence. Make inferences. The computer-based version of this reading passage is best viewed on the CD-ROM that supplements this book. Scroll through the passage, using the skills that you have learned. Check your answers on the scieen. If you do not have a computer, then use the print version shown with the following computer-assisted questions. Jazz is an improvisational form of music that originated in the southern United States after the Civil War. Although its origins and history are somewhat vague, we know that it began as the musical expression of black people who had formerly been slaves, combining hymns, spirituals, and traditional work songs into something quite new. The style was a blend of the rhythms brought to America by the Africans Line who were imported as slave labor and the popular music of the (9)

era that featured the ragtime piano. The term jazz itself is of obscure and possible nonmusical origin, but it was first used to describe this particular kind of musical expression in about 1915. A jazz band commonly includes four to twelve musicians with a relatively large proportion of the group in the rhythm section. Customarily, there are a drummer, a bass player, and a pianist. Often there is also a banjo player or guitarist. In traditional jazz, the clarinet, trumpet, and trombone carry the melody. In more modern jazz, the saxophone, violin, and flute may also be included in the melody section. Some jazz bands employ a blues singer. Most jazz is premised on the principle that an almost infinite number of variations can accommodate themselves to a progression of chords that can be repeated indefinitely to feature an improvisation by solo instruments or vocalists. For example, while the trumpet plays the melody, the clarinet might embellish and invent compatible melodies around the original theme. Such improvisation is a test of the jazz musician's skill and is referred to as tone color. Jazz first became popular outside the United States in the 1920s when jazz bands began to record, distribute, and even export their recordings to Europe. Since jazz is improvisational, it does not exist in the form of printed scores. and recorded performances were and still are the best way of preserving the music. A very basic library of recorded jazz would include work by such classic artists as Jelly Roll Morton, Louis Armstrong, Duke Ellington, Count Basie, and Billie Holiday. Theirs is probably America's most unique and most important contribution to the musical world, although a few contemporary artists are keeping the tradition alive.

TYPES OF QUESTIONS

231

Mulntiple-ChoiceQuestions Paper-Based TOEFL

1. Which of the following is the main topic of the passage? A definition of jazz GD Jazz musicians O Improvisation in jazz OD Jazz bands 2. The new music of jazz was first heard @ in Europe GD in Africa O in South America CD in North America 3. The word "blend7' in the passage is closest in meaning to mixture CD rejection O imitation CD variety 4. The author mentions all of the following as characteristics of jazz EXCEPT a large number of percussion instruments GD a printed score for the music O a melody played by the trumpet a a ragtime piano

Answer Sheet 1 . o a a C 2 . r n C D O 3 . o C D o 4 . r n O O a

Computer-Based TOEFL Which of the following is the main topic of the passage? 0 A definition of jazz 0 Jazz musicians 0Improvisation in jazz 0Jazz bands

a

The new music of jazz was first heard 0 in Europe 0 in Africa 0in South America 0 in North America

a a

The word BIFfTT in the passage is closest in meaning to 0 mixture 0 rejection 0 imitation 0 variety

The author mentions all of the following as characteristics of jazz EXCEPT 0 a large number of percussion instruments 0 a printed score for the music l a 3a melody played by the trumpet 0 a ragtime piano

D 8 a D

Computer-Assisted Questions Location Questions On some of the compu'ter-assisted questions, you will be asked to locate information in the passage. These questions are like the multiple-choice questions on the Paper-Based TOEFL where you must locate information by identifying the line numbers in the passage. On the computer-assisted questions, you must click on the sentence or paragraph in the passage.

232

REVIEW OF READING

-t Jazz IS an rmprov~sat~onal lorm ol musrc that originated In the southern United Stales after the Civil War. Although its origins and hislory are somewhat vague, we know that it began as Ihe musical expression of black people who had formerly been slaves, combining hymns, spirituals,and Iradilional work songs into something quite new. The slyle was a blend ol the rhythms brought to America by the Africans who were imported as slave labor and the popular music of the era lhat featured the ragtimepiano. The term jazz itsell is of obscvre and possible nonmusical origin, but it was first used to describe this oatiicular kind of musical exoresslon in abwl1915. A jazz ban'd commonly includes four'to twelve musicians with a relatively large proportion of the group in the rhythm section. Customarily, there are a drummer, a bass player, and a pianisl. Often there is also a banjo player or guilarist. In lraditional jazz, the clarinet, Irumpet, and trombone carry Ihe melody. In more modem jazz, the saxophone, violin, and flule may also be included in the melody section. Some jazz bands employ a blues singer. Most jazz is premised on the principle lhat an almost infinite number of variations can accommodate

Click o n the sentence in paragraph 1 in which the author mentions the derivation of the word "jazz." Paragraph 1 is marked with an arrow (+).

Synonyms On some of the computer-assisted questions, you will be asked to locate synonyms in the reading passage. You must click on the word or phrase in the passage.

1

was a blend of the rhythms brought to America by the Africans who were imported as slave labor and the popular music of the era thal featured the ragtime piano. The lerm jazz itself is of obscure and Dossible nonmusical origin, but it was first used lo describe thb parlicular kind of musical expression in about 1915, A Ian band commonly includes four to twelve musicians with a & t i large of the group in the rhythm section. Cuslomarlly, there are a drummer, a bass player, and a pianist. Often there-is also a banjo player or in traditionaljazz, the clarinet, trumpet, and trombonecarry the melody. In more modem jazz, the saxophone, violin, and flute may also be includedin the melody section. Some jazz bands employ a blues singer. Most jazz is premised on the principle Ihat an almost infinite number of variations can accommodate themselves to a progression of chords that can be repeated indefinitely to feature an improvisation by solo instruments or vocalists. For example, while the trumpet plays the melody, the clarinet might embellish and invent compatible melodies around the original theme. Such improvisation is a test of the z musician's skill and is referredto as tone color.

the bold text ,ha, is closest in

meaning to commonly

TYPES OF QUESTIONS

233

Paraphrased sentences On some of the computer-assisted questions, you will be asked to identify paraphrases of sentences in the passage.

I What does the author mean by the be ~ncludedin the melody section. Some jazz bands employ a blues singer. Most jazz is premised on the principle that an almost infinite number of variations can accommodate themselves to a progression of chords that can be repeated indefinitely to feature an improvisation by solo instruments or vocalists. For example, while the trumpet plays the melody, the clarinet might embellishand invent compatible melodies around the original theme. Such improvisation is a test of the jazz musician's skill and is referred to as lone color. Jazz first became popular outside the United States in the 1920s when jazz bands began to record, distribute, and az is even expati thei~recordingsto Europe. Since i improvisational, it does not exist in the form of printed scores, and recorded performances were and still are the best way of preserving the music. A very basic library of recorded jazz would include work by such classic artists as Jelly Roll Morton, Louis Armstrong, Duke Ellington, Count Basie, and Billie Holiday. Theirs is probably America's most unique and most important contribution to the musical world, although a few contemporary artists are keeping the tradition alive. ,

_

statement Since jazz is improvisational, it does not exist in the form of printed scores, and recorded performances were and still are the best way of presewingthe music. 0Because jazz is not written down, it is not preserved. =Today jazz has written scores like other forms of music. 0 Jazz is p r e s e ~ e din audio recordings instead of in written media. 0There are not very many copies of the early jazz performances.

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Although speech is generally accepted as the most advanced form of communication, there are many ways of communicating without using words. In every known culture, signals, signs, symbols, and gestures are commonly utilized as instruments of communication. There is a great deal of agreement among communication scientists as to what each of these methods is and how each differs from the others. For instance, the basic function of any signal is to Tmpinge upon the environment in such a way that it attracts attention, as, for example, the dots and dashes that can be applied in a telegraph circuit. Coded to refer to speech, the potential for communication through these dots and dashes-short and long intervals as the circuit is broken-is very great. Less adaptable to the codification of words, signs also contain agreed upon meaning; that is, they convey information in and of themselves. Two examples are the hexagonal red sign that conveys the meaning of stop, and the red and white swirled pole outside a shop that communicates the meaning of barber. Symbols are more difficult to describe than

MODEL TEST 2

16. The word 'iB in paragraph 1 refers to function CD signal O environ.ment a way

Although speech is generally accepted as the most advanced form of communication, there are many ways of communicatrng without using words. In every known culture, signals, signs, symbols, and gestures are commonly utilized as instruments of communication. There is a great deal of agreement among communication scientists as to what each of these methods is and how each differs from the others. For instance, the basic function of any signal is to impinge upon the environment in such a way that ftattracts attention, as, for example, the dots and dashes that can be applied in a telegraph circuit. Coded to refer to speech, the potential for communication through these dots and dashes-short and long intervals as the circuit is broken-is very great. Less adaptable to the codification of words, signs also contain agreed upon meaning; that is, they convey information in and of themselves. Two examples are the hexagonal red sign that conveys the meaning of stop, and the red and white swirled pole outside a shop that communicates the meanrng of barber. Symbols are more difficult to describe than

299

17. The word m a T in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by GD range GD advantage O organization Q possibility

1

Although speech is generally accepted as the most advanced form of communication, there are many ways of communicating without using words. In every known culture, signals, signs, symbols, and gestures are covmonly utilized as instruments of communication. There is a great deal of agreement among communication scientists as to what each of these methods is and how each differs from the others. For instance, the basic function of any signal is to impinge upon the environment in such a way that it attracts attention, as, for example, the dots and dashes that can be applied in a telegraph circuit. Coded to refer to speech, the Topential for communication through these dots and dashes-short and long intervals as the circuit is broken-IS very great. Less adaptable to the codification of words, signs also contain agreed upon meaning; that is, they convey information in and of themselves. Two examples are the hexagonal red sign that conveys the meaning of stop, and the red and white swirled pole outside a shop that communicates the meaning of barber. Symbols are more difficult to describe than

300

TOEFL MODEL TESTS

18. Look at the word in the passage. Click on the word or phrase in the bold text that 'ffi3meIve's refers to.

20. Applauding was cited as an example of a signal CD a sign O a symbol

a a gesture

,

scientists as to what each of these methods is and how each differs from the others. For instance, the basic function of any signal is to impinge upon the environment in such a way that it attracts attention, as, for example, the dots and dashes that can be applied in a telegraph circuit. Coded to refer t o speech, the potential for communication through these dots and dashes-short and long intervals as the circuit is broken-is very great. Less adaptable to the codification of words, signs. also contain agreed upon meaning; that is, they convey information i n and of themselves.Two examples are the hexagonal red sign that conveys the meaning of stop, and the red and white swirled pole outside a shop that communicates the meaning of barber. Symbols are more difficult to describe than either signals or signs because of their intricate relationship with the receiver's cultural perceptions. In some cultures, applauding in a theater provides performers with an auditory symbol of approval. In other cultures, if done in unison, applauding can be a symbol of the audience's discontent with the performance. Gestures such as waving and

19. The word YRViETF in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by which of the following? inefficient GD complicated 6 3 historical

uncertain

also contain agreed upon meaning; that is, they convey information in and of themselves. Two examples are the hexagonal red sign that conveys the meaning of stop, and the red and white swirled pole outside a shop that communicates the meaning of barber. Symbols are more difficult to describe than either signals or signs because of their fntn'dattS relationship with the receiver's cultural perceptions. In some cultures, applauding in a theater provides performers with an auditory symbol of approval. In other cultures, if done in unison, applauding can be a symbol of the audience's discontent with the performance. Gestures such as waving and handshaking also communicate certain cultural messages. Although signals, signs, symbols, and gestures are very useful, they also have a major disadvantage in communication. They usually do not allow ideas to be shared without the sender being directly adjacent to the receiver. Without an exchange of ideas, Interaction comes to a halt. As a result, means of communication intended to be used across long distances and extended per~ods

21. The following sentence can be added to the passage.

A loud smacking of the lips after a meal can be either a kinesthetic and auditory symbol of approval and appreciation, or simply a rude noise. Where would it best fit in the passage? Click on the square (B) to add the sentence to the passage. Scroll the passage to see all of the choices.

also contain agreed upon meaning; that is, they convey information in and of thernselves.mTwo examples are the hexagonal red sign that conveys the meaning of stop, and the red and white swirled pole outside a shop that communicates the meaning of barber. mSymbofs are more difficult to describe than either signals or signs because of their intricate relationship with the receiver's cultural perceptions. In some cultures, applauding in a theater provides performers with an auditory symbol of approval. In other cultures, if done in unison, applauding can be a symbol of the audience's discontent with the perf0rmance.mGestures such as waving and handshaking also communicate certain cultural messages. Although signals, signs, symbols, and gestures are very useful, they also have a major disadvantage in communication.mThey usually do not allow ideas to be shared without the sender being directly adjacent to the receiver. Without an exchange of ideas, interaction comes to a halt. As a result, means of communication intended to be used across long distances and extended periods

22. Why were the telephone, radio, and TV invented? People were unable to understand signs, symbols, and signals. CD People wanted to communicate across long distances. O People believed that signs, signals, and symbols were obsolete. a People wanted new forms of entertainment. @

MODEL TEST 2

23. Look at the word in the passage. Click on the word or phrase in the bold text that is closest in meaning to .T -o

Fertilizer is any substance that can be added to the soil to provide chemical elements essential for plant nutrition so that the yield can be increased. Natural substances such as animal droppings, ashes from wood fires, and straw have been used as fertilizers in fields for thousands of years, and

In some cultures, applauding in a theater provides performers with an auditory symbol of approval. In other cultures, if done in unison, applauding can be a symbol of the audience's discontent with the performance. Gestures such as waving and handshaking also communicate certain cultural messages. Although signals, signs, symbols, and gestures are very useful, they also have a major disadvantage in cornrnunication. They usualty do not allow ideas to be shared without the sender being directly adjacent to the receiver. Without an exchange of ideas, interaction comes to a halt. As a result, means of communication intended to be used across long distances and extended periods must be based upon speech. To radio, television, and the telephone, one must add fax, paging systems, electronic mail. and the Internet, and no one doubts but that there are more means of communication on the horizon.

lime has been used since the Romans introduced it during the Empire. It was not until the nineteenth century, however, that chemical fertilizers became widely accepted as normal agricultural practice. Today, both natural and synthetic fertilizers are available in a variety of forms.

A complete fertilizer is usually marked with a formula consisting of three numbers, such as 4-82 or 6-6-4, which designate the percentage of

content of nitrogen, phosphoric acid, and potash in the order stated. Synthetic fertilizers, produced by factories, are available in either solid or liquid form. Solids, in the shape of chemical granules, are in demand because they are not only easy to store but also easy to apply. Recently, liquids have shown an increase in popularity, accounting for about 20 percent of the nitrogen fertilizer used throughout the world. Formerly, powders were also used, but they were found to be less convenient than either solids or liquids. Fertilizers have no harmful effects on the soil, the crop, or the consumer as long as they are used according to recommendationsbased on the results of local research. Occasionally, however, farmers may use more fertilizer than necessary, in which case the plants do not need, and therefore do not absorb, the total amount of fertilizer applied to the soil. The surplus of fertilizer thus can damage not only the crop but also the animals or human beings that eat the crop. Furthermore, fertilizer that is not used in the production of a healthy plant is leached into the water table. Accumulations of chemical fertilizer in the water supply accelerate the growth of algae and, consequently, may disturb the natural cycle of life, contributing to the death of fish. Too much fertilizer on grass can cause digestive disorders in cattle and in infants who drink cow's milk. Fertilizer must be used with great attention to responsible use or it can harm the environment.

301

302

TOEFL MODEL TESTS

24. With which of the following topics is the passage primarily concerned? GD Local research and harmful effects of

fertilizer Advantages and disadvantages of liquid fertilizer O A formula for the production of fertilizer a 'Content, form, and effects of fertilizer 25. The'word FYEFfRV in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by which of the following? limited preferred anticipated CD required

Fertilizer is any substance that can be added to the soil to provide chemical elements essential for plant nutrition so that the yield can be increased. Natural substances such as animal droppings, ashes from wood fires, and straw have been used as fertilizers in fields for thousands of years, and lime has been used since the Romans introduced it during the Empire. It was not until the nineteenth century, however, that chemical fertilizers became widely accepted as normal agricultural practice. Today, both natural and synthetic fertilizers are available in a variety of forms. A complete fertilizer is usually marked with a formula consisting of three numbers, such as 4-82 or 6-6-4, which designate the percentage of content of nitrogen, phosphoric acid, and potash in the order stated. Synthetic fertilizers, produced by factories, are available in either solid or liquid form. Solids, in the shape of chemical granules, are in demand because they are not only easy to store but also easy to apply. Recently, liquids have shown an increase in popularity, accounting for about 20 percent of the nitrogen fertilizer used throughout the world. Formerly, powders were

26. Which of the following has the smallest percentage content in the formula 4-8-2? Nitrogen GD Phosphorus O Acid a Potash

27. What is the percentage of nitrogen in a 5-8-7 formula fertilizer?

3 percent 5 percent O 7 percent a 8 percent 28. The word be replaced by

in paragraph 2 could

modify a specify O limit a increase

Fertilizer is any substance that can be added to the soil to provide chemical elements essential for plant nutrition so that the yield can be increased Natural substances such as animal droppings, ashes from wood fires, and straw have been used as fertilizers in fields for thousands of years, and lime has been used since the Romans introduced it during the Empire. It was not until the nineteenth century, however, that chemical fertilizers became widely accepted as normal agricultural practice. Today, both natural and synthetic fertilizers are available in a variety of forms. A complete fertilizer is usually marked with a formula consisting of three numbers, such as 4-82 or 6-6-4, which designate the percentage of content of nitrogen, phosphoric acid, and potash in the order stated. Synthetic fertilizers, produced by factories, are available in either solid or liquid form. Solids, in the shape of chemical granules, are in demand because they are not only easy to store but also easy to apply. Recently, liquids have shown an increase in popularity, accounting for about 20 percent of the nitrogen fertilizer used throughout the world. Formerly, powders were

29. Which of the following statements about fertilizer is true? Powders are more popular than ever. CD Solids are difficult to store. O Liquids are increasing in popularity. Chemical granules are difficult to apply.

MODEL TEST 2

30. The word

in paragraph 2 refers to

powders CD solids O liquids

CD fertilizer

content of nitrogen, phosphoric acid, and potash in the order stated. Synthetic fertilizers, produced by factories, are available in either solid or liquid form. Solids, in the shape of chemical granules, are in demand because they are not only easy to store but also easy to apply. Recently, liquids have shown an increase in popularity, accounting for about 20 percent of the nitrogen fertilizer used throughout the world. Formerly, powders were also used, but 'They were found to be less convenient than either solids or liquids. Fertil~zershave no harmful effects on the soil, the crop, or the consumer as long as they are used according to recommendations based on the results of local research. Occasionally, however, farmers may use more fertilizer than necessary, in which case the plants do not need, and therefore do not absorb, the total amount of fertilizer applied to the soil. The surplus of fertilizer thus can damage not only the crop but also the an~malsor human beings that eat the crop. Furthermore, fertilizer that is not used in the production of a healthy plant is leached Into the water table. Accumulations of chemical fertilizer in the water

303

3 1. The word in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to GD effective CD plentiful O easy to use a cheap to produce

content of nitrogen, phosphoric acid, and potash in the order stated. Synthetic fertilizers, produced by factories, are available in either solid or liquid form. Solids, in the shape of chemical granules, are in demand because they are not only easy to store but also easy to apply. Recently, liquids have shown an increase in popularity, accounting for about 20 percent of the nitrogen fertilizer used throughout the world. Formerly, powders were also used, but they were found to be less 'corivenienfthan either solids or liquids. Fertilizers have no harmful effects on the soil. the crop, or the consumer as long as they are used according to recommendationsbased on the results of loca~research.Occasionally, however, farmers may use more fert~lizerthan necessary, in which case the plants do not need, and therefore do not absorb, the total amount of fertilizer applied to the soil. The surplus of fertilizer thus can damage not only the crop but also the animals or human beings that eat the crop. Furthermore, fertilizer that is not used in the production of a healthy plant is leached into the water table. Accumulations of chemical fertilizer in the water

!

I

/

/

I

I

.

I

304

TOEFL MODEL TESTS

32. Click on the sentence in paragraph 3 that describes the effect of an accumulation of fertilizer in the water supply. Paragraph 3 is marked with an arrow (+).

-+ Fertilizers have no harmful effects on the soil, the crop, or the consumer as long as they are used according to recommendations based on the results of local research. Occasionally, however, farmers may use more fertilizer than necessary, in which case the plants do not need, and therefore do not absorb, the total amount of fertilizer applied to the soil. The surplus of fertilizer thus can damage not only the crop but also the animals or human beings that eat the crop. Furthermore, fertilizer that is not used in the production of a healthy plant is leached into the water table. Accumulations of chemical fertilizer in the water supply accelerate the growth of algae and, consequently, may disturb the natural cycle of life, contributing to the death of fish. Too much fertilizer on grass can cause digestive disorders in cattle and in infants who drink cow's milk. Fertilizer must be used with great attention to responstble use or it can harm the environment.

33. Look at the word fi;SWA in the passage. Click on the word or phrase in the bold text that is closest in meaning to m.

Fertilizers have no harmful effects on the soil, the crop, or the consumer as long as they are used according to recommendations based on the results of local research. Occasionally, however, farmers may use more fertilizer than necessary, in which case the plants do not need, and therefore do not absorb, the total amount of fertilizer applied to the soil. The surplus of fertilizer thus can damage not only the crop but also the animals or human beings that eat the crop. Furthermore, fertilizer that is not used in the production of a healthy plant is leached into the water table. Accumulations of chemical fertilizer in the water supply accelerate the growth of algae and, consequently, may disturb the natural cycle of life, contributing to the death of fish.Too much fertilizer on grass can cause digestive disorders in cattle and in infants who drink cow's milk. Fertilizer must be used with great attention to responsible use or it can harm the environment.

34. The following sentence can be added to the passage.

One objection to powders was their propensity to become solid chunks if the bags got damp. Where would it best fit in the passage? Click on the square (a)to add the sentence to the passage. Scroll the passage to see all of the choices.

content of nitrogen, phosphoric acid, and potash in the order stated. Synthetic fert~lizers,produced by factories, are available in either solid or liquid form. Solids, in the shape of chemical granules, are in demand because they are not only easy to store but also easy to apply. Recently, liquids have shown an Increase in popularity, accounting for about 20 percent of the nitrogen fertilizer used throughout the world. rn Formerly, powders were also used, but they were found to be less convenient than either solids or liquids. Fertilizers have no harmful effects on the soil, the crop, or the consumer as long as they are used according to recommendations based on the results of local research.m Occasionally, however, farmers may use more fertilizer than necessary, in which case the plants do not need, and therefore do not absorb, the total amount of fertilizer applied to the soil. The surplus of fertilizer thus can damage not only the crop but also the animals or human beings that eat the crop. Furthermore, fertilizer that is not used in the production of a healthy plant is leached into the water table. Accumulations of chemical fertilizer in the water

. .,

' :. a;*

%

.-

m I

5

MODEL TEST 2 The development of the horse has been recorded from the beginning through all of its evolutionary stages to the modern form. It is, in fact, one of the most complete and well-documented chapters of paleontological history. Fossil finds provide us not only with detailed information about

305

35. What is this passage mainly about? G9 The evolution of the horse C D The migration of horses O The modern-day pony a The replacement of the anchitheres by the hipparion

the horse itself but also with valuable insights into the migration of herds, and even evidence for speculation about the climatic conditions that could have instigated such migratory behavior. Geologists believe that the first horses appeared on Earth about sixty million years ago as compared with two million years ago for the appearance of human beings. There is evidence of early horses on both the American and European continents, but it has been documented that, almost twelve million years ago at the beginning of the Pliocene Age, a horse about midway through its evolutionary development crossed a land bridge where the Bering Strait is now located, from Alaska into the grasslands of Asia, and traveled all the way to Europe. This early horse was a hipparion, about the size of a modern-day pony with three toes and specialized cheek teeth for grazing. In Europe, the hipparion encountered another less advanced horse called

36. According to the author, fossils are considered valuable for all of the following reasons EXCEPT they suggest how the climate may have been CD they provide information about migration O they document the evolution of the horse they maintain a record of life prior to the Miocene Age

37. The word best be replaced by

in paragraph 1 could

explained caused O improved QD influenced CD

the anchitheres, which had previously invaded Europe by the same route, probably during the Miocene Period. Less developed and smaller than the hipparion, the anchitheres was eventually completely replaced by it. By the end of the Pleistocene Age, both the anchitheres and the hipparion had become extinct in North America where they had originated, as fossil evidence clearly indicates. In Europe, they evolved into the larger and stronger animal that is very similar to the horse as we know it today. For many years, the horse was probably hunted for food by early tribes of human beings. Then the qualities of the horse that would have made it a good servant were noted-mainly its strength and speed. It was time for the horse to be tamed, used as a draft animal at the dawning of agriculture, and then ridden as the need for transportation increased. It was the descendant of this domesticated horse that was brought back to the Americas by European colonists.

The development of the horse has been recorded from the beginning through all of its evolut~onarystages to the modern form. It is, in fact, one of the most complete and well-documented chapters of paleontological history. Fossil finds provide us not only with detailed information about the horse itself but also with valuable insights into the migration of herds, and even evidence for speculation about the climatic conditions that could have'insti~ed'suchmigratory behavior. Geologists belleve that the first horses appeared on Earth about sixty million years ago as compared with two million years ago for the appearance of human beings. There is evidence of early horses on both the American and European continents, but it has been documented that, almost twelve million years ago at the beginning of the Pliocene Age, a horse about midway through its evolutionary development crossed a land bridge where the Bering Strait is now located, from Alaska into the grasslands of Asia, and traveled all the way to Europe. This early horse was a hipparion, about the size of a modern-day pony with three toes and specialized

TOEFL MODEL TESTS

306

38. What does the author mean by the statement appeared on Earth about sixty million ago as compared with two million years ago for the appearance of human beings ? GD Horses appeared long before human be-

ings according to the theories of geologists. Both horses and human beings appeared several million years ago, if we believe , geologists. O The geological records for the appearance of horses and human beings are not very accurate. OD Horses and human beings cannot be compared by geologists because they appeared too long ago. ,

The development of the horse has been recorded from the beginning through all of its evolutionary stages to the modem form. It is, in fact, one of the most complete and well-documented chapters of paleontological history. Fossil finds provide us not only with detailed information about the horse itself but also with valuable insights into the migration of herds, and even evidence for speculation about the climatic conditions that could have instigated such migratory behavior. ~ ~ s ' 'G6oTaT3s belieTiTff7ZfWefr W e a r e d on Earth about sixty million yearsas compared with two million years ago for the appearance of human beings. There is evidence of early horses on both the American and European continents, but it has been documented that, almost twelve million years ago at the beginning of the Pliocene Age, a horse about midway through its evolutionary development crossed a land bridge where the Bering Strait is now located, from Alaska into the grasslands of Asia, and traveled all the way to Europe. This early horse was a hipparion, about the size of a modern-day pony with three toes and specialized

39. Which of the following conclusions may be made on the basis of information in the passage? The hipparions migrated to Europe to feed in developing grasslands. GD There are no fossil remains of either the anchitheres or the hipparion. 8 There were horses in North America when the first European colonists arrived. Very little is known about the evolution of the horse. @

40. According to this passage, the hipparions were five-toed animals

GD not as highly developed as the anchither1 O larger than the anchitheres OD about the size of a small dog

41. The word 'IT in paragraph 2 refers to anchitheres hipparion O Miocene Period a route

@

appearance of human beings. There is evidence of early horses on both the American and European continents, but it has been documented that, almost twelve million years ago at the beginning of the Pliocene Age, a horse about midway through its evolutionary development crossed a land bridge where the Bering Strait is now located, from Alaska into the grasslands of Asia, and traveled all the way to Europe. This early horse was a hipparion, about the size of a modern-day pony with three toes and specialized cheek teeth for grazing. In Europe, the hipparion encountered another less advanced horse called the anchitheres, which had previously invaded Europe by the same route, probably during the Miocene Period. Less developed and smaller than the hipparion, the anchitheres was eventually completely replaced by it. By the end of the Pleistocene Age both the anchitheres and the hipparion had become extinct in North America, where they had originated, as fossil evidence clearly indicates. In Europe, they evolved into the larger and stronger animal that is very similar to the horse as we know it today. For

MODEL TEST 2

42. The word T%'TFKT in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to

familiar widespread a nonexistent a tame

cheek teeth for grazing. In Europe, the hipparion encountered another less advanced horse called the anchitheres, which had previously invaded Europe by the same route, probably during the Miocene Period. Less developed and smaller than the hipparion, the anchitheres was eventually completely replaced by it. By the end of the Pleistocene Age both the anchitheres and the hipparion had become CxtKd in North America, where they had originated, as fossil evidence clearly indicates. In Europe, they evolved into the larger and stronger animal that is very similar to the horse as we know it today. For many years, the horse was probably hunted for food by early tribes of human beings. Then the qualities of the horse that would have made it a good servant were noted-mainly its strength and speed. It was time for the horse to be tamed, used as a drafl animal at the dawning of agriculture, and then ridden as the need for transportation increased. It was the descendant of this domesticated horse that was brought back to the Americas by European colonists.

307

44. Look at the word tl8WsTc'Xe'd in the passage. Click on the word or phrase in the bold text that is closest in meaning to ?lo-miif.

By the end of the Pleistocene Age both the anchitheres and the hipparion had become extinct in North America, where they had originated, as fossil evidence clearly indicates. In Europe, they evolved into the larger and stronger animal that is very s~milarto the horse as we know it today. For many years, the horse was probably hunted for food by early tribes of human beings.Then the qualities of the horse that would have made it a good servant were noted--mainly its strength and speed. It was time for the horse to be tamed, used as a draft animal at the dawning of agriculture, and then ridden as the need for transportation increased. It was the descendant of this domesticated horse that was brought back to the Americas by European colonists.

I

I

I

~ , '

Pliocene

Scroll the passage to see all of the paragraphs.

~'

1 1

45. It can be concluded from this passage that the GD Miocene Period was prior to the

43. Click on the paragraph that refers to the potential for conclusions from the evidence supplied by fossil remains.

I

a Pleistocene Period was prior to the Miocene Pleistocene Period was prior to the Pliocene CD Pliocene Period was prior to the Miocene

To check your answers for Model Test 2, refer to the Answer Key on page 489. For an explanation of the answers, refer to the Explanatory Answers for Model Test 2 on pages 52 1-54 1.

TOEFL MODEL TESTS

308

Writing Section: Model Test 2 When you take a Model Test, you should use one sheet of paper, both sides. Time each Model Test carefully. After you have read the topic, you should spend 30 minutes writing. For results that would be closest to the actual testing situation, it is recommended that an English teacher score your test, using the guidelines on page 244 of this book.

Read and think about the following statement: Pets should be treated like family members. Do you agree or disagree with the statement? Give reasons to support your opinion. Notes

To check your essay, refer to the Checklist on page 489. For an Example Essay, refer to the Explanatory Answers for Model Test 2 on page 54 1. v

MODEL TEST 3

309

Model Test 3

Computer-Assisted TOEFL

Section 1: Listening The Listening Section of the test measures the ability to understand conversations and talks in English. You will use headphones to listen to the conversations and talks. While you are listening, pictures of the speakers or other information will be presented on your computer screen. There are two parts to the Listening Section, with special directions for each part. On the day of the test, the amount of time you will have to answer all of the questions will appear on the computer screen. The time you spend listening to the test material will not be counted. The listening material and questions about it will be presented only one time. You will not be allowed to take notes or have any paper at your computer. You will both see and hear the questions before the answer choices appear. You can take as much time as you need to select an answer; however, it will be to your advantage to answer the questions as quickly as possible. You may change your answer as many times as you want before you confirm it. After you have confirmed an answer, you will not be able to return to the question. Before you begin working on the Listening Section, you will have an opportunity to adjust the volume of the sound. You may not be able to change the volume after you have started the test.

QUESTION DIRECTIONS - Part A In Part A of the Listening Section, you will hear short conversations between two people. In some of the conversations, each person speaks only once. In other conversations, one or both of the people speak more than once. Each conversation is followed by one question about it. Each question in this part has four answer choices. You should click on the best answer to each question. Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers. 1. What does the woman mean?

She will not go home for spring vacation. GD She has not taken a vacation for a long time. O She does not plan to graduate. a She does not want to go home after graduation in May. @

2. What are the speakers tallung about? GD The class. GD The weekend. O Homework. a Books.

3. What does the man mean? @

He should have prepared more.

GD He is very wonied. O He has been studying a lot.

He needs a few more days.

4. What will the man probably do?

a Buy a textbook. a Come back later. O Go to the bookstore.

CD Drop his English class. 5. What does the woman mean? She does not like the class. Her classmates are really great. O The professor is not very nice. a The class is interesting. @

310

TOEFL MODEL TESTS

6. What will the woman probably do?

a Make an appointment with Dr. Peterson's T.A. CD Cancel her appointment with the T.A. O Postpone her appointment with Dr.

Peterson's T.A. a See the T.A. more often.

7. what does the man mean?

GD He would rather have American food. CD He has always liked American food. O He is accustomed to eating American food. a He ate American food more in the past. 8. What does the man mean? He should go to bed. GD He did not know the time. He is trying to bring his work up to date. He is not sleepy yet.

9. What is the woman going to do?

a Spend some time with the man. a Make a list of the names. O Pass out the names.

Let someone else call the names.

10. What does the man mean? The woman has missed the deadline. a He will investigate the situation. O The deadline has been canceled. a An exception might be possible.

11. What does the man mean? GO The book is confusing.

He is doing well in the class. O The teacher is not very clear. The lectures are from the book.

12. What does the woman mean?

GD She wants to submit her paper early. GD The answers on the paper are all correct. O The deadline has passed for the paper.

The paper is not quite finished.

13. What does the woman say about the class? She does not like the class. It is not a required class. O She has already taken the class. a The man will have to take the class.

14. What did the T.A. suggest the students do?

GD Study together. a Prepare for an oral final. a Review the quizzes. Take the professor's advice. 15. What is the woman going to do? GD Make an appointment. GD Give the man a pen. O Sign the form for the man.

a Wait for the man. 16. What is the woman going to do? Revise her work.

a Close the window. Copy from the man. C D Hand in the work.

17. What had the man assumed about the loan payment? 09 The computer made an error.

CD The payment is due on the fifth of every

month. O The loan must be paid by the first of the

month. CD The loan had already been paid in full.

MODEL TEST 3

31 1

QUESTION DIRECTIONS - Part B In Part B of the Listening Section, you will hear several longer conversations and talks. Each conversation or talk is followed by several questions. The conversations, talks, and questions will not be repeated. The conversations and talks are about a variety of topics. You do not need special knowledge of the topics to answer the questions correctly. Rather, you should answer each question on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in the conversations or talks. For most of the questions, you will need to click on the best of four possible answers. Some questions will have special directions. The special directions will appear in a box on the computer screen.

18. Why did Betty see Professor Hayes? To enroll in a class.

23. According to the speaker, how did England control trade in the eighteenth century?

a To ask his opinion about a university.

CD By threatening to go to war.

O To find out who is chair of the selection

C D By competing with farmers.

committee. a To get a letter for graduate school.

O By keeping manufacturing processes

19. What does Professor Hayes think about Betty? She might need to take his seminar. CD She should do well in graduate school. O She had better go to another university. a She needs to apply before the end of April.

20. Who will decide whether Betty is accepted to the program?

a The chair of the selection committee. a The entire selection committee. Professor Hayes.

a Dr. Warren.

secret. a By stealing plans from the colonies. 24. What did Samuel Slater do? GD He kept designs for English machinery

from being used in the colonies. He prevented Moses Brown from opening a mill. O He committed designs for English machinery to memory. a He smuggled drawings for English machines into the United States.

25. What happened as a result of the SlaterBrown partnership? QD A change from agriculture to industry

began to occur in the United States.

21. When does Betty need to submit all her materials?

a OnMay 1. CD In three days. O Before the April 30th deadline. a Today.

22. Who is the speaker?

a A professor of religion. a A professor of history. O A guest lecturer in a drama class. a A guest lecturer in a writing class.

GD A rise in prices for English goods was evidenced. O Many small farmers began to send their products to England. a Americans had to keep their manufacturing processes secret. 26. What is the purpose of this conversation? GD The man wants to reserve textbooks for the following semester. C D The man is complaining about not having his books this semester, O The woman needs to order enough books for the class. a The woman is helping the man register for his courses.

weeks. GD His books did not arrive before the semester began. O He did not have any books this semester. a He did not understand how to order his books. 28. How'can the man order books? GD The teacher will order books for the

class. GD He could fill out a form and pay for the

books now. O He must wait until the semester begins. a He has to register for the classes, and the books will be ordered for him. 29. How will the man know that the books have arrived? He will receive a form in the mail. He will get a phone call. O He will stop by the bookstore at the beginning of the semester. a He will receive the books from his teacher in class. @

GD They will prepare for a quiz. C D

They will review their notes. 34. What is the main purpose of this talk?

To provide an overview of U.S. history from 1743 to 1826. OD To discuss Jefferson's contribution to the American Revolution. O To analyze Jefferson's presidency. To summarize Jefferson's life.

35. Jefferson was a member of which political group?

a Monarchist. a Federalist. O Republican.

a Democrat. 36. How did Jefferson become president? CD He received the most votes. CD Congress approved him. O Aaron Burr withdrew from the race.

a As vice president, he automatically became president.

30. What is the instructor defining? The term "essay." GD Prose writing. O Personal viewpoint. Brainstorming.

3 1. What is the main point of the talk? The work of Alexander Pope. CD The difference between prose and poetry. O The general characteristics of essays CD The reason that the phrase "personal essay" is redundant. 32. According to the talk, which of the characteristics are NOT true of an essay? GD It is usually short. GD It can be either prose or poetry. O It expresses a personal point of view.

CD It discusses one topic.

They will write their first essay.

O They will read works by Pope.

37. According to the lecturer, what was it that Jefferson was NOT?

a

An effective public speaker. CD An architect. O A literary draftsman. a A diplomat.

38. What are the two most common places where fossils may be found?

Ice. Mud. Sand. Water.

MODEL TEST 3

39. The professor briefly explains a process. Summarize the process by putting the events in order.

n

m n tnd space where it belongs. Use each sentence only once.

A mold of the organism preserves the shape of the organism. Water soaks into the organism. Organisms are buried in mud or sand. Minerals in the water dissolve the original organism.

313

43. How did the man select his courses? By reading the catalog. CD By consulting with the woman. O By referring to his signed program of

study. a By making an appointment with his advisor. 44. What does the woman suggest?

The man should take the required courses for graduation. GD The man should see an academic advisor to help him. O The man should read the requirements in the college catalog. The man should bring her a copy of his transcript. 45. What is the man's problem?

40. What is lost in the process of replacement?

a The fine shapes of fragile structures. GD The internal features of the plant or

animal. O The minerals in the deposit.

a The original fossil mold. 41. Why are the layers of sedimentary rock important to the fossil record?

CD The ages of the fossils may be determined by their location in the layers of rock. a The shapes of the fossils may be preserved in the layers of rock. O The rock protects the fossils from the mineral water that dissolves them. a Plants and animals that are formed at the same time are buried in different layers of rock. 42. Why didn't the man apply for graduation? He wasn't sure that he had completed the requirements. a He did not have enough credit hours. O He did not have a program of study. a He did not understand that it was necessary.

He may not have enough credit hours to graduate. CD He may not have taken the correct classes to graduate. O He may not be able to see an academic advisor before graduation. a He may not have time to take the rest of the required courses. 46. In which class would this discussion probably take place? Sociology. CD Education. O Linguistics.

a Geography. 47. According to the discussion, what is the definition of a standard dialect? The dialect that is selected by the government. GD The dialect that is of a higher value than the others. O The dialect that is able to express everything necessary. a The dialect that is the model taught in schools.

CD Some accents are more prestigious

GD Some accents are not permitted in schools. GD There is only one standard accent in the United States. O There is one major dialect in the United States. a ~ ldialects l are of equal value.

49. which two linguistic components are included in a dialect?

Grammar. Pronunciation. Vocabulary. Spelling.

because they are spoken by the upper classes. OD Because they are more comprehensible, some accents are inherently better than others. O One of the purposes of schools is to teach the accents that are considered most important. a In general, accents are not as important as dialects because there is no standard for them.

Structure This section measures the ability to recognize language that is appropriate for standard written English. There are two types of questions in this section. In the first type of question, there are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence, there are four words or phrases. You will choose the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence. Clicking on a choice darkens the oval. After you click on Next and Confirm Answer, the next question will be presented. The second type of question has four underlined words or phrases. You will choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct. Clicking on an underlined word or phrase will darken it. After you click on Next and Confirm Answer, the next question will be presented. 1. In simple animals, reflex movement or involuntary response to stimuli. @

behavior mostly

a most is behavior

6. According to the wave theory,

population of the Americas may have been the result of a number of separate migrations.

O most behavior is

GD the CD their

a the most behavior

O that

a

whose

2.Although the weather in Martha's Vineyard isn't to have a year-round tourist season, it has become a favorite summer resort.

7. It is presumed that rules governing the sharing of food influenced earliest cultures evolved.

that the

GD that the way

goodly enough a good enough O good as enough CD enough good

@

a is the way O the way GD which way

3. A swarm of locusts is responsible the

8. The prices at chain stores are as reasonable,

consumption of enough wlant material

if not more reasonable, as those at discount 0 a stores.

a

a

@

a

to feed a million 2nd a half people. 0 a

9. _Historicallythere has been 4. Oyster farming has been practice in most @ a 0 parts of the world for many years.

a

a

m

o

a

two major

factions in the Republican Party-the liberals and the conservatives.

5. & was Shirley Temple Black which

10. Whitman wrote Leaves of Grass as a tribute

a

a

rewresented her country in the United 0 Nations and later became an ambassador.

a

to the Civil War soldiers who had laid on the

m battlefields and whom he had seen a 0 while serving as an army nurse.

a

TOEFL M0DE.L TESTS

316

11. Calculus, elegant and economical symbolic system, can reduce complex problems to simple terms.

17. The more the relative humidity reading

GD

the worst the heat affects us. CD a CD

GD it is an

a that an

18. Because correlations are not causes,

O an

GD

is an

statistical data which are extremely easy a 0 to misuse.

12. Canada does not require that U.S. citizens obtajn passports to enter the country, and GD Mexico does neither

13. m e Chinese were the first and @

a

19. As a general rule, the standard of living by the average output of each person in society.

Mexico doesn't either O neither Mexico does either does Mexico

GD is fixed CD fixed

ethnic

O has fixed

GD

group to work on the construction of the 0 a transcontinental railroad system.

a fixes 20. Despite of many attempts to introduce a

a

of differences in temperature and GD a 0 precipitation at varying altitudes.

lit& success.

a

a

GD being Walt Whitman CD who was Walt Whitman GD Walt Whitman a Walt Whitman was

the formation of the sun, the planets, and other stars began with the condensation of an interstellar cloud. GD It accepted that CD Accepted that O It is accepted that

That is accepted

a

Idiom Neutral, the effort has met with very

is aresults -

15. The poet just beginning to be recognized as an important influence at the time of his death.

a

universal language, notably Esperanto and

14. The range of plant life on a mountainside

16.

a,

21. The Consumer Price Index lists GD how much costs every car GD how much does every car cost O how much every car costs a how much are every car cost

22.

every other nation, the United States GD used to define & unit of currency, the dollar, 0 a in terms of the gold standard.

a

23. The Ford Theater where Lincoln was shot must restore must be restoring O must have been restored must restored @

MODEL TEST 3

24. John Dewey thought that children will learn

m

317

25. S-om methods to prevent soil erosion _ae GD

a

a

better through participating in experiences

plowing parallel with the slopes of hills,

rather than through listening to lectures. 0 a

to plant trees on unproductive land, and

a

a

rotating crops.

318

TOEFL MODEL TESTS

Section 3: Reading This section measures the ability to read and understand short passages similar in topic and style to those that students are likely to encounter in North American universities and colleges. This section contains reading passages and questions about the passages. There are several different types of questions in this section. In the Reading Section, you will first have the opportunity to read the passage. You will use the scroll bar to view the rest of the passage. When you have finished reading the passage, you will use the mouse to click on Proceed. Then the questions about the passage will be presented. You are to choose the one best answer to each question. Answer all questions about the information in a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage. Most of the questions will be multiple-choice questions. To answer these questions you will click on a choice below the question. To answer some questions, you will click on a word or phrase. To answer some questions, you will click on a sentence in the passage. To answer some questions, you will click on a square to add a sentence to the passage.

MODEL TEST 3 Few men have influenced the development of American English to the extent that Noah Webster

319

1. Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?

did. Born in West Hartford, Connecticut, in 1758,

a Webster's Work

Webster graduated from Yale in 1778. He was admitted to the bar in 1781 and thereafter began

CE3 Webster's Dictionaries O Webster's School

to practice law in Hartford. Later, when he turned

a Webster's Life

to teaching, he discovered how inadequate the available schoolbooks were for the children of a new and independent nation. In response to the need for truly American textbooks, Webster published A Grammatical Institute of the English Language,

a three-volume work that consisted

2. The word VfZlRfidTi'E in paragraph I could best be replaced by

a unavailable CE3 expensive

difficult unsatisfactory

of a speller, a grammar, and a reader. The first volume, which was generally known as The American Spelling Book, was so popular that eventually it sold more than 80 million copies and provided him with a considerable income for the rest of his life. While teaching, Webster began work on the Compendious Dictionary of the English Language, which was published in 1806, and was also very successful. In 1807, Noah Webster began his greatest work, An American Dictionary of the English Language. In preparing the manuscript, he devoted ten years to the study of English and its relationship to other languages, and seven more years to the writing itself. Published in two volumes in 1828, An American Dictionary of the English Language has become the recognized authority for usage in the United States. Webster's purpose in writing it was to demonstrate that the American language was developing distinct meanings, pronunciations, and spellings from those of British English. He is responsible for advancing simplified spelling forms: develop instead of develope; plow instead of plough; jail instead of gaol; theater and center instead of theatre and centre; color and honor instead of colourand honour. Webster was the first author to gain copyright protection in the United States by being awarded

a copyright for his American Speller. He continued, for the next fifty years, to lobby for improvements in the protection of intellectual properties, that is, authors' rights. In 1840 Webster brought out a second edition of his dictionary, which included 70,000 entries instead of the original 38,000. The name Webster has become synonymous with American dictionaries. This edition sewed as the basis for the many revisions that have been produced by others, ironically, under the uncopyrighted Webster name.

Few men have influenced the development of American English to the extent that Noah Webster did. Born in West Hartford, Connecticut, in 1758, Webster graduated from Yale in 1778. He was admitted to the bar in 1781 and thereafter began to practice law in Hartford. Later, when he turned to teaching, he discovered how RadeqTiatethe available schoolbooks were for the children of a new and independent nation. In response to the need for truly American textbooks, Webster publishedA GrammaticalInstitute of the English Language, a three-volume work that consisted of a speller, a grammar, and a reader. The first volume, which was generally known as The American Spelling Book, was so popular that eventually it sold more than 80 million copies and provided him with a considerable income for the rest of his life. While teaching, Webster began work on the Compendious Dictionary of the English Language, which was published in 1806, and was also very successful. In 1807, Noah Webster began his greatest work, An American Dictionary of the English Language. In preparing the manuscript, he devoted

,

1 I

i : I

3. Why did Webster write A Grammatical lnstitute of the English Language? GD He wanted to supplement his income.

There were no books available after the Revolutionary War. O He felt that British books were not appropriate for American children. a The children did not know how to spell. (B>

j I

I I

i

I

1

320

TOEFL MODEL TESTS

4. From which publication did Webster earn a lifetime income? GD Compendious Dictionary of the English Language a An American Dictionary of the English Language O An American Dictionary of the English Language: Second Edition GD The American Spelling Book

5. ~ o o at k the word in the passage. Click on the word or phrase in the bold text that is closest in meaning to

w.

Few men have influenced the development of American English to the extent that Noah Webster did. Born in West Hartford, Connecticut, in 1758, Webster graduated from Yale in 1778. He was admitted to the bar in 1781 and thereafter began to practice law in Hartford. Later, when he turned to teaching, he discovered how inadequate the available schoolbooks were for the children of a new and independent nation. In response to the need for truly American textbooks, Webster published A Grammatical Institute of the English Language, a three-volume work that consisted of a speller, a grammar, and a reader. The first volume, which was generally known as The American Spelling Book, was so popuHr that eventually it sold more than 80 million copies and provided him with a considerable income for the rest of his life. While teaching, Webster began work on the Compendious Dictionary of the English Language, which was published in 1806, and was also very successful. In 1807, Noah Webster began his greatest work, An American Dictionary of the English Language. In preparing the manuscript, he devoted ten years to

6. The word TTXSlslefaD-leuin paragraph 1 most nearly means GD large

prestigious O steady a unexpected

r

Few men have tnfluenced the develooment o r American English to the extent that ~oah'webster did. Born in West Hartford, Connecticut, in 1758, Webster graduated from Yale in 1778. He was admitted to the bar in 1781 and thereafter began to practice law in Hartford. Later, when he turned to teaching, he discovered how inadequate the available schoolbooks were for the children of a new and independent nation. In response to the need for truly American textbooks, Webster published A Grammatical Institute of the English Language, a three-volume work that consisted of a speller, a grammar, and a reader. The first volume, which was generally known as The American Spelling Book, was so popular that eventually it sold more than 80 million copies and provided him with aFoXidEri6Eincome for the rest of his life. While teaching, Webster began work on the Compendious Dictionary of the English Language, which was published in 1806, and was also verv successful. In 1807, ~ o a Webster h began his greatest work, An American Dictionary of the English Language. In preparing the rnanusiript he devoted ten years to

7. When was An American Dictionary of the English Language published?

I4

A

MODEL TEST 3

8. The word W in paragraph 2 refers to GD language GD usage O authority C D dictionary

American Spelling Book, was so popular that eventually it sold more than 80 million copies and provided him with a considerable income for the rest of his life. While teaching, Webster began work on the Compendious Dictionary of the English Language, which was published in 1806, and was also very successful. In 1807, Noah Webster began his greatest work, An American Dictionary of the English Language. In preparing the manuscript, he devoted ten years to the study of English and its relationship to other languages, and seven more years to the writing itself. Published in two volumes in 1828, An American Dictionary of the English Language has become the recognized authority for usage in the United States. Webster's purpose in writingiZ' was to demonstrate that the American language was developing distinct meanings, pronunciations, and spellings from those of British English. He is responsible for advancing simplified spelling forms: develop instead of develope; plow instead of plough; jail instead of gaol; theater and center instead of theatre and centre; color and honor instead of colour and honour.

321

9. Click on the sentence in paragraph 2 that explains Webster's purpose for writing an American dictionary. Paragraph 2 is marked with an arrow (-).

American Spelling Book, was so popular that eventually it sold more than 80 million copies and provided him with a considerable income for the rest of his life. \Nhile teaching, Webster began work on the Compendious Dictionary of the English Language, which was published in 1806, and was also very successful. -+ In 1807, Noah Webster began his greatest work, An American Dictionary of the English Language. In preparing the manuscript, he devoted ten years to the study of English and its relationship to other languages, and seven more years to the writing itself. Published in two volumes in 1828, An American Dictionary of the English Language has become the recognized authority for usage in the United States. Webster's purpose in writing it was to demonstrate that the American language was developing distinct meanings, pronunciations, and spellings from those of British English. He is responsible for advancing simplified spelling forms: develop instead of develope; plow instead of plough; jail instead of gaol; theater and center instead of theatre and centre; color and honor instead of colour and honour.

TOEFL MODEL TESTS

322

10. The word ?JfRTRTin paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to

a new a simple a

different exact

The San Andreas Fault line is a fracture at the congruence of two major plates of the Earth's crust, one of which supports most of the North American continent, and the other of which underlies the coast of California and part of the ocean floor of the Pacific Ocean. The fault originates about six hundred miles south of the Gulf of California, runs north in an irregular line along the western coast to San Francisco, and

American Spelling Book, was so popular that eventualkj it sold more than 80 million copies and provided him with a considerable income for the rest of his life. While teaching, Webster began work on the Compendious Dictionary of the English Language, which was published in 1806, and was also very successful. In 1807, Noah Webster began his greatest work, An American Dictionary of the English Language. In preparing the manuscript, he devoted ten years to the study of English and its relationship to other languages, and seven more years to the writing itself. Published in two volumes in 1828, An American Dictionary of the English Language has become the recognized authority for usage in the United States. Webster's purpose in writing it was to demonstrate that the American language was developing distinct meanings, pronunciations, and spellings from those of British English. He is responsible for advancing simplified spelling forms: develop instead of develope; plow instead of plough; jail instead of gaol; theater and center instead of theatre and centre; cdor and honor instead of colour and honour.

continues north for about two hundred more miles before angling off into the ocean. In places, the trace of the fault is marked by a trench, or, in geological terms, a rift, and small ponds called sag ponds dot the landscape. Its western side always moves north in relation to its eastern side. The total net slip along the San Andreas Fault and the length of time it has been active are matters of conjecture, but it has been estimated that, during the past fifteen million years, coastal California along the San Andreas Fault has moved about 190 miles in a northwesterly direction with respect to the North American plate. Although the movement along the fault averages only a few inches a year, it is intermittent and variable. Some segments of the fault do not move at all for long periods of time, building up tremendous pressure that must be released. For this reason, tremors are not unusual along the San Andreas Fault,

11. According to this passage, which one of the following spellings would Webster have approved in his dictionaries?

some of which are classified as major earthquakes. Also for this reason, small tremors are interpreted as safe, since they are understood to be pressure that releases without causing much damage.

Develope GD Theatre O Color a Honour

It is worth noting that the San Andreas Fault passes uncomfortably close to several major metropolitan areas, including Los Angeles and San Francisco. In addition, the San Andreas Fault has created smaller fault systems, many of which underlie the smaller towns and cities along the California coast. For this reason, Californians have long anticipated the recurrence of what they refer to as the "Big One," a chain reaction of destructive earthquakes that would measure near 8 on the Richter scale, similar in intensity to those that occurred in 1857 and 1906. Such a quake would wreak devastating effects on the life and property in the region. Unfortunately, as pressure continues to build along the fault, the likelihood of such an earthquake increases substantially.

MODEL TEST 3

12. What is the author's main purpose in the passage?

a To describe the San Andreas FauIt To give a definition of a fault O To explain the reason for tremors and

323

15. In which direction does the western side of the fault move?

GD West East O North

a South

earthquakes GD To classify different kinds of faults

16. The ward 'T in paragraph 1 refers to 13. How does the author define the San Andreas Fault?

GD A plate that underlies the North American continent GD A crack in the Earth's crust between two plates O Occasional tremors and earthquakes GD Intense pressure that builds up 14. The word best be replaced by

in paragraph 1 could

a gets wider GD changes direction O begins

disappears

The San Andreas Fault line is a fracture at the congruence of two major plates of the Earth's crust, one of which supports most of the North American continent, and the other of which underlies the coast of California and part of the ocean floor of the Pacific Ocean. The fault i3T@iiies'about six hundred miles south of the Gulf of California, runs north in an irregular line along the western coast to San Francisco, and continues north for about two hundred more miles before angling off into the ocean. In places, the trace of the fault is marked by a trench, or, in geological terms, a rift, and small ponds called sag ponds dot the landscape. Its western side always moves north in relation to its eastern side. The total net slip along the San Andreas Fault and the length of time it has been active are matters of conjecture, but it has been estimated that, during the past fifteen million years, coastal California along the San Andreas Fault has moved about 190 miles in a northwesterly direction with respect to the North American plate. Although the movement along the fault averages only a few inches a year, it is intermittent and variable. Some

GD total GD net O side a fault

The San Andreas Fault line is a fracture at the congruence of two major plates of the Earth's crust, one of which supports most of the North American continent, and the other of which underlies the coast of California and part of the ocean floor of the Pacific Ocean. The fault originates about six hundred miles south of the Gulf of California, runs north in an irregular line along the western coast to San Francisco, and continues north for about two hundred more miles before angling off into the ocean. In places, the trace of the fault is marked by a trench, or, in geological terms, a rift, and small ponds called sag ponds dot the landscape. Its western side always moves north in relation to its eastem side. The total net slip along the San Andreas Fault and the length of time it has been active are matters of conjecture, but it has been estimated that, during the past fifteen million years, coastal California along the San Andreas Fault has moved about 190 miles in a northwesterly direction with respect to the North American plate. Although the movement along the fault averages only a few inches a year, it is intermittent and variable. Some

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324

TOEFL MODEL TESTS

17. The word in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by which of the following? GD dangerous

a predictable

20. Look at the word in the passage. Click on the word or phrase in the bold text that is closest in meaning to

TeStERTW.

O uncommon GD occasional

The San Andreas Fault line is a fracture at the congruence of two major plates of the Earth's crust, one of which supports most of the North American continent, and the other of which underlies the coast of California and part of the ocean floor of the Pacific Ocean. The fault I originates about six hundred miles south of the Gulf of California, runs north in an irregular line along the western coast to San Francisco, and continues north for about two hundred more miles 1 before angling off into the ocean. In places, the trace of the fault is marked by a trench, or, in geological terms, a rift, and small ponds called sag ponds dot the landscape. Its westem side always moves north in relation to its eastern side. The total net slip along the San Andreas Fault and the length of time it has been active are matters of I conjecture, but it has been estimated that, during the past fifteen million years, coastal California along the San Andreas Fault has moved about 190 miles in a northwesterly direction with respect to the North American plate. Although the movement along the fault averages only a few inches a year, it is inferrniftent and variable. Some

It is worth noting that the San Andreas Fault passes uncomfortably close to several major metropolitan areas, including Los Angeles and San Francisco. In addition, the San Andreas Fault has created smaller fault systems, many of which underlie the smaller towns and cities along the California coast. For this reason, Californians have long anticipated the recurrence of what they refer t d as the "Big One," a chain reaction of 'dest?uctive earthquakes that would measure near 8 on the Richter scale, similar in intensity to those that occurred in 1857 and 1906. Such a quake would wreak devastating effects on the life and property in the region. Unfortunately, as pressure continues to build along the fault, the likelihood of such an earthquake increases substantially.

2 1. Look at the word TfREE in the passage. Click on the word or phrase in the bold text !F !F ! refers to. that TR

18. Along the San Andreas Fault, tremors are GD small and insignificant G3 rare, but disastrous O frequent events GD very unpredictable 19. The phrase "the Big One" refers to which of

the following? A serious earthquake a The San Andreas Fault O The Richter scale @> California

1 . It is worth notinq that the San Andreas Fault 4 1 passes uncomfortably close to several major metropolitan areas, including Los ~ n ~ e l e s - a n d San Francisco. In addition, the San Andreas Fault has created smaller fault systems, many of which underlie the smaller towns and cities along the California coast. For this reason, Californians have long anticipated the recurrence of what they refer to as the "Big One," a chain reaction of destructive earthquakes that would measure-near 8 on the Richter scale, similar in intensity to those that occurred in 1857 and 1906. Such a quake would wreak devastating effects on the life and property in the region. Unfortunately, as pressure continues to build along the faun, the likelihood of such an earthquake increases substantially.

MODEL TEST 3

22. Which of the following words best describes the San Andreas Fault? Straight a Deep O Wide a Rough

The body of an adult insect is subdivided into three sections, including a head, a three-segment thorax, and segmented abdomen. Ordinarily, the thorax bears three pairs of legs and a single or double pair of wings. The vision of most adult insects is specialized through two large compound eyes and multiple simple eyes. Features of an insect's mouth parts are used in classifying insects into types. Biting mouth parts, called mandibles, such as the mouth parts found in grasshoppers and beetles, are common among insects. Behind the mand~blesare located the maxillae, or lower jaw parts, which serve to direct food into the mouth between the jaws. A labrum above and one below are similar to another animal's upper and lower lips. In an insect with a sucking mouth function, the mandibles, maxillae, labrum, and labium are modified in such a way that they constitute a tube through which liquid such as water, blood, or flower nectar can be drawn. In a butterfly or moth, this coiled drinking tube is called the proboscis because of its resemblance, in miniature, to the trunk of an elephant or a very large nose. Composed chiefly of modified maxillae fitted together, the insect's proboscis can be flexed and extended to reach nectar deep in a flower. In mosquitoes or aphids, mandibles and maxillae are modified to sharp stylets with which the insect can drill through surfaces like human or vegetable skin membranes to reach juice. In a housefly, the expanding labium forms a spongelike mouth pad that it can use to stamp over the surface of food, sopping up food particles and juices. Insects, the most numerous creatures on our planet, are also the most adaptable. They require little food because they are small. They easily find shelter and protection in small crevices in trees and surface geological formations. Species of insects can evolve quickly because of their rapid reproduction cycle; they live In every climate, some making their homes in the frozen Arctic regions and many others choosing the humid. warm, and nutrient-rich rain forest environment. An active part of the natural food cycle, insects provide nutrition for animals and devour waste products of other life forms.

325

TOEFL MODEL TESTS

326

23. What is the best title for this passage? @

An Insect's Environment

GJ The Structure of an Insect O Grasshoppers and Beetles @>

The Stages of Life of an Insect

26. The word est in meaning to

in paragraph 2 is clos-

normal a rare O important necessary @

Look at the word in the passage. Click on the word or phrase in the bold text that is closest in meaning to -.

The body of an adult insect is subdivided into three sections, including a head, a three-segment thorax, and segmented abdomen. Ordinarily, the thorax bears three pairs of legs and a single or double pair of wings.The vision of most adult insects is specialized through two large compound eyes and multipte simple eyes. Features of an insect's mouth parts are used in classifying insects into types. Biting mouth parts, called mandibles, such as the mouth parts found in grasshoppers and beetles, are common among insects. Behind the mandibles are located the maxillae, or lower jaw parts, which serve to direct food into the mouth between the jaws. A labrum above and one below are similar to another animal's upper and lower lips. In an insect with a sucking mouth function, the mandibles, maxillae, labrum, and labium are modified in such a way that they constitute a tube through which liquid such as water, blood, or flower nectar can be drawn. In a butterfly or moth, this coiled drinking tube is called the proboscis because of its resemblance, in miniature, to the trunk of an elephant or a very large nose. Composed chiefly

The body of an adult insect IS subdivided into three sections, including a head, a three-segment thorax, and segmented abdomen. Ordinarily, the thorax bears three pairs of legs and a single or double pair of wings. The vision of most adult insects is specialized through two large compound eyes and multiple simple eyes. Features of an insect's mouth parts are used in classifying insects into types. Biting mouth parts, called mandibles, such as the mouth parts found in grasshoppers and beetles, are common among insects. Behind the mandibles are located the maxillae, or lower jaw parts, which serve to direct food into the mouth between the jaws. A labrum above and one below are similar to another animal's upper and lower lips. In an insect with a sucking mouth function, the mandibles, maxillae, labrum, and labium are modified in such a way that they constitute a tube through which liquid such as water, blood, or flower nectar can be drawn. In a butterfly or moth, this coiled drinking tube is called the proboscis because of its resemblance, in miniature, to the trunk of an elephant or a very large nose. Composed chiefly

27. The author compares labrum and labium to

a an upper and lower lip mandibles O maxillae jaws (e,

25. How are insects classified?

CD By the environment in which they live By the food they eat O By the structure of the mouth CD By the number and type of wings

28. What is the proboscis? CD Nectar

CD A tube constructed of modified maxillae O A kind of butterfly

A kind of flower

29. Which of the following have mandibles and maxillae that have been modified to sharp stylets?

a Grasshoppers C D

Butterflies

O Mosquitoes

Houseflies

GD pad

a penetrate

food

@ saturate

O housefly

O explore

a mouth

CD distinguish

the maxillae, or lower jaw parts, which serve to direct food into the mouth between the jaws. A labrum above and one below are similar to another animal's upper and lower lips. In an insect with a sucking mouth function, the mandibles, maxillae, labrum, and labium are modified in such a way that they constitute a tube through which liquid such as water, blood, or flower nectar can be drawn. In a butterfly or moth, this coiled drinking tube is called the proboscis because of its resemblance, in miniature, to the trunk of an elephant or a very large nose. Composed chiefly of modified maxillae fitted together, the insect's proboscis can be flexed and extended to reach nectar deep in a flower. In mosquitoes or aphids, mandibles and maxillae are modified to sharp stylets with which the insect can drilltfhToGgh surfaces like human or vegetable skin membranes to reach juice. In a housefly, the expanding labium forms a spongelike mouth pad that it can use to stamp over the surface of food, sopping up food particles and juices. Insects, the most numerous creatures on our planet, are also the most adaptable. They require

the maxillae, or lower jaw parts, which serve to direct food into the mouth between the jaws. A labrum above and one below are similar to another animal's upper and lower lips. In an insect with a sucking mouth function, the mandibles, maxillae, labrum, and labium are modified in such a way that they constitute a tube through which liquid such as water, blood, or flower nectar can be drawn. In a butterfly or moth, this coiled drinking tube is called the proboscis because of its resemblance, in miniature, to the trunk of an elephant or a very large nose. Composed chiefly of modified maxillae fitted together, the insect's proboscis can be flexed and extended to reach nectar deep in a flower. In mosquitoes or aphids, mandibles and maxillae are modified to sharp stylets with which the ~nsectcan drill through surfaces like human or vegetable skin membranes to reach juice. In a housefly, the expanding labium forms a spongelike mouth pad that it can'use to stamp over the surface of food, sopping up food particles and juices. Insects, the most numerous creatures on our planet, are also the most adaptable. They require

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328

TOEFL MODEL TESTS

32. The following sentence can be added to the passage.

The protozoans, minute aquatic creatures, each of which consists of a single cell of protoplasm, constitute a classification of the most primitive

Although some insects, like the co*ckroach, have remained essentially unchanged for eons, most insects adapt readily to changing environmental conditions.

forms of animal life. The very name protozoan indicates the scientific understanding of the animals. Proto- means first or primitive, and zoa refers to animal. They are fantastically diverse, but three major groups may be identified on the basis

Where would it best fit in the passage?

Cliok on the square (W) to add the sentence to the passage.

of their motility. The Mastigophora have one or more long tails that they use to propel themselves forward. The Ciliata, which use the same basic means for locomotion as the Mastigophora, have a larger number of short tails. The Sarcodina,

Scroll the passage to see all of the choices.

which include amoebae, float or row themselves about on their crusted bodies.

proboscis can be flexed and extended to reach nectar deep in a flower. In mosquitoes or aphlds, mandibles and maxillae are modified to sharp stylets with which the insect can drill through surfaces like human or vegetable skin membranes to reach juice. In a housefly, the expanding labium forms a spongelike mouth pad that it can use to stamp over the surface of food, sopping up food particles and juices. .Insects, the most numerous creatures on our planet, are also the most adaptable. They require little food because they are small..They easily find shelter and protection in small crevices in trees and surface geological formations. Species of insects can evolve quickly because of their rapid reproduction cycle; they live in every climate, some making their homes in the frozen Arctic regions and many others choosing the humid, warm, and nutrient-rich rain forest environment. An active part of the natural food cycle, insects provide nutrition for animals and devour waste products of other life f o r m s . ~

.

In addition to their form of movement, several other features discriminate among the three groups of protozoans. For example, at least two nuclei per cell have been identified in the Ciliata, usually a large nucleus that regulates growth but decomposes during reproduction, and a smaller one that contains the genetic code necessary to generate the large nucleus. Chlorophyll, which is the green substance encountered in plants, is found in the bodies of some protozoans, enabling them to make some of their own food from water and carbon dioxide. Protozoans are not considered plants but animals, because unlike pigmented plants to which some protozoans are otherwise almost identical, they do not live on simple organic compounds. Their cell demonstrates all of the major characteristics of the cells of higher animals, such as eating, breathing, and reproducing. Many species of protozoans collect into

33. What is the purpose of this passage?

colonies, physically connected to one another

CQ To complain GD To persuade

and responding uniformly to outside stimulae.

To entertain C D To inform

with investigations carried out with advanced

Current research into this phenomenon along microscopes may necessitate a redefinition of what constitutes protozoans, even calling into question the basic premise that they have only one cell. Nevertheless, with the current data available, almost 40,000 species of protozoans have been identified. No doubt, as technoloq' improves methods of observation, better models of classification of these simple single cells will be proposed.

MODEL TEST 3

34. With what topic is the passage primarily concerned?

37. Look at the word in the passage. Click on the word or phrase in the bold text that is closest in meaning to

m.

Colonies of protozoans a Mastigophora O Motility in protozoans a Characteristics of protozoans

35. The word 7?lEfE? in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by GD very common

a very fast O very old

very small

The protozoans, minute aquatic creatures, each of which consists of a single cell of protoplasm, constitute a classification of the most primitive forms of animal life. The very name protozoan indicates the scientific understanding of the animals. Proto- means first or primitive, and zoa refers to animal. They are fantastically diverse, but three major groups may be identified on the basis of their motility. The Mastigophora have one or more long tails that they use to propel themselves forward. The Ciliata, which use the same basic means for locomotion as the Mastigophora, have a larger number of short tails. The Sarcodina, which include amoebae, float or row themselves about on their crusted bodies. In addition to their form of movement, several other features discriminate among the three groups of protozoans. For example, at least two nuclei per cell have been identified in the Ciliata, usually a large nucleus that regulates growth but decomposes during reproduction, and a smaller one that contains the genetic code necessary to generate the large nucleus. Chlorophyll, which is the green substance

329

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-

+

36. What is protoplasm? GD A class of protozoan GD The substance that forms the cell of a protozoan A primitive animal similar to a protozoan An animal that developed from a protozoan

The protozoans, minute aquatic creatures, each of which consists of a single cell of protoplasm, constitute a classification of the most primitive forms of animal life. The very name protozoan indicates the scientific understanding of the animals. Proto- means first or primitive, and zoa refers to animal. They are fantastically diverse, but three major groups may be identified on the basis of their mofility.The Mastigophora have one or more long tails that they use to propel themselves forward.The Ciliata, which use the same basic means for locomotion as the Mastigophora, have a larger number of short tails.The Sarcodina, which include amoebae, float or row themselves about on their crusted bodies. In addition to their form of movement, several other features discriminate among the three groups of protozoans. For example, at least two nuclei per cell have been identified in the Ciliata, usually a large nucleus that regulates growth but decomposes during reproduction, and a smaller one that contains the genetic code necessary to generate the large nucleus. Chlorophyll, which is the green substance

330

TOEFL MODEL TESTS

38. What does the author mean by the statement 7ney are tantastlcally cilveise, nut thre& major groups may be identified on the b m of their motility ?

GD The three major groups are unique in that they all move in the same manner. a Everything we know about the protozoans is tied into their manner of 'movement. O The manner of movement is critical 'when classifying the three major groups of protozoa. Mobility in the protozoans is insignificant.

The protozoans, minute aquatic creatures, each of which consists of a single cell of protoplasm, constitute a classificat~onof the most prim~tive forms of animal life. The very name protozoan indicates the scientific understanding of the animals. Proto- means first or primitive, and zoa refers to animal. They ?e ri 'EfRaSTcalfj~8feSB,b v three inqor groups may be identifiedon the basis of their motility. The Mastigophora have one or more long tails that they use to propel themselves forward. The Ciliata, which use the same basic means for locomotion as the Mastigophora, have a larger number of short tails. The Sarcodina, which include amoebae, float or row themselves about on the~rcrusted bodies. In addition to their form of movement, several other features discriminate among the three groups of protozoans. For example, at least two nuclei per cell have been identified in the Ciliata, usually a large nucleus that regulates growth but decomposes during reproduction, and a smaller one that contains the genetic code necessary to generate the large nucleus. Chloro~hvll.which is the areen substance

39. To which class of protozoans do the amoebae beIong? Mastigophora Ciliata O Sarcodina CD Motility 40. What is the purpose of the large nucleus in the Ciliata?

GD It generates the other nucleus. It contains the genetic code for the small nucleus. O It regulates growth. It reproduces itself.

41. Why are protozoans classified as animals?

GD They do not live on simple organic compounds. GD They collect in colonies. O They respond uniformly to outside stimulae. a They may have more than one cell. 42. The word

in paragraph 4 refers to

protozoans microscopes investigations a colonies

In addition to their form of movement, several other features discriminate among the three groups of protozoans. For example, at least two nuclei per cell have been identified in the Ciliata, usually a large nucleus that regulates growth but decomposes during reproduction, and a smaller one that contains the genetic code necessary to generate the large nucleus. Chlorophyll, which is the green substance encountered in plants, is found in the bodies of some protozoans, enabling them to make some of their own food from water and carbon dioxide. Protozoans are not considered plants but animals, because unlike pigmented plants to whlch some protozoans are otherwise almost identical, they do not live on simple organic compounds. Their cell demonstrates all of the major characteristics of the cells of higher animals, such as eating, breathing, and reproducing. Many species of protozoans collect into colonies, physically connected to one another and responding uniformly to outside stimulae. Current research into this phenomenon along with investigations carried out with advanced microscopes may necessitate a redefinition of what constitutes protozoans, even calling into question the basic premise that they have only one cell. Nevertheless, with the current data available, almost 40,000 species of protozoans have been identified. No doubt, as technology improves methods of observation, better models of classification of these simple single cells will be proposed.

MODEL TEST 3

43. Click on the sentence in paragraph 4 that brings into question the current belief that protozoans are single celled. Paragraph 4 is marked with an arrow (+).

some protozoans, enabling them to make some of their own food from water and carbon dioxide. Protozoans are not considered plants but animals, because unlike pigmented plants to which some not live on simple organic compounds. Their cell demonstrates all of the major characteristics of the cells of higher animals, such as eating, breathing, and reproducing. 4 Many species of protozoans collect into colonies, physically connected to one another and responding uniformly to outside stimulae. Current research into this phenomenon along with investigations carried out with advanced microscopes may necessitate a redefinition of what constitutes protozoans, even calling into question the basic premise that they have only one cell. Nevertheless, with the current data available, almost 40,000 species of protozoans have been identified. No doubt, as technology improves methods of observation, better models of classification of these simple single cells will be proposed.

331

44. The word 7VlTi0tm1yin paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to in the same way

a once in a while all of a sudden CD in the long run

some protozoans, enabling them to make some of their own food from water and carbon dioxide. Protozoans are not considered plants but animals, because unlike pigmented plants to which some protozoans are otherwise almost identical, they do not live on simple organic compounds. Their cell demonstrates all of the major characteristics of the cells of higher animals, such as eating, breathing, and reproducing. Many species of protozoans collect into colonies, physically connected to one another and responding uniformly to outside stimulae. Current research into this phenomenon along with investigations carried out with advanced microscopes may necessitate a redefinition of what constitutes protozoans, even calling into quest~onthe basic premise that they have only one cell. Nevertheless, with the current data available, almost 40,000 species of protozoans have been identified. No doubt, as technology improves methods of observation, better models of classification of these simple single cells will be proposed.

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45. Which of the following- statements is NOT true of protozoans? GD There are approximately 40,000 species.

They are the most primitive forms of animal life. O They have a large cell and a smaller cell. CD They are difficult to observe.

To check your answers for Model Test 3, refer to the Answer Key on page 490. For an explanation of the answers, refer to the Explanatory Answers for Model Test 3 on pages 542-561.

TOEFL MODEL TESTS

332

Writing Section: Model Test 3 When you take a Model Test, you should use one sheet of paper, both sides. Time each Model Test carefully. After you have read the topic, you should spend 30 minutes writing. For results that would be closest to the actual testing situation, it is recommended that an English teacher score your test, using the guidelines on page 244 of this book.

Many people have learned a foreign language in their own country; others have learned a foreign language in the country in which it is spoken. Which is better? Give the advantages of each and support your viewpoint. Notes

To check your essay, refer to the Checklist on page 490. For an Example Essay, refer to the

Explanatory Answers for Model Test 3 on page 561.

MODEL TEST 4

333

Model Test 4

Computer-Assisted TOEFL

Sectioi~1: Listening The Listening Section of the test measures the ability to understand conversations and talks in English. You will use headphones to listen to the conversations and talks. While you are listening, pictures of the speakers or other information will be presented on your computer screen. There are two parts to the Listening Section, with special directions for each part. On the day of the test, the amount of time you will have to answer all of the questions will appear on the computer screen. The time you spend listening to the test material will not be counted. The listening material and questions about it will be presented only one time. You will not be allowed to take notes or have any paper at your computer. You will both see and hear the questions before the answer choices appear. You can take as much time as you need to select an answer; however, it will be to your advantage to answer the questions as quickly as possible. You may change your answer as many times as you want before you confirm it. After you have confirmed an answer, you will not be able to return to the question. Before you begin working on the Listening Section, you will have an opportunity to adjust the volume of the sound. You may not be able to change the volume after you have started the test.

QUESTION DIRECTIONS - Part A In Part A of the Listening Section, you will hear short conversations between two people. In some of the conversations, each person speaks only once. In other conversations, one or both of the people speak more than once. Each conversation is followed by one question about it. Each question in this part has four answer choices. You should click on the best answer to each question. Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers.

1. What will the woman probably do? CD Have a pa.rty.

C D Attend the International Students' Association. O Go to work. Get some rest.

3. What did the man do after he lost his passport? He went to see the foreign student advisor. CD He went to Washington. O He wrote to the Passport Office. C D He reported it to the Passport Office. @

2. What will the speakers probably do?

CD Leave immediately. CD Watch the game on TV. O Start to play. CD Eat a sandwich.

4. What does the woman suggest the man do? @ Ask Dr. Tyler to clarify the assignment.

CD Show a preliminary version to Dr. Tyler. O Let her see the first draft before Dr. Tyler sees it. CD Talk to some of the other students in Dr. Tyler's class.

TOEFL MODEL TESTS

334

5. What does the woman mean? Dr. Clark is a good teacher. CD Statistics is a boring class. O Two semesters of statistics are required. The students do not like Dr. Clark.

6. What are the speakers discussing?

a A teacher. CD A textbook. O An assignment. a A movie.

7. What had the man assumed about the woman? GD She was Sally Harrison's cousin. GD She was Sally Harrison's sister.

O She was Sally Harrison's friend.

12. What does the man suggest the woman do? See the doctor. CD Get another job. 03 Go to the counter.

a Buy some medicine. 13. What does the woman mean? She will try her best.

a She has to save her money. O She is still undecided.

a She needs an application. 14. What does the woman mean? The man must stop working. There is a little more time. 03 The test is important. a It is time for the test.

She was Sally Harrison. 15. What does the man imply?

8. What is the woman's problem? The desk drawer won't open. GD The pen is out of ink. O She cannot find her pen. @ She is angry with the man.

9. What does the man imply about John? GD John is usually late.

CD John will be there at eight-thirty. O John will not show up. C D John is usually on time.

10. What does the man mean? The results of the tests are not available. The experiment had unexpected results. He has not completed the experiment yet. a It is taking a lot of time to do the experiment.

@

11. What does the man imply about Barbara? @ She does not put much effort in her

studies.

a She is very likable. O She prefers talking to the woman. a She has a telephone.

a The woman's roommate took a different class. The book is very expensive. The textbook may have been changed. CD The course is not offered this semester.

16. What does the woman imply? Sally may get a bike for Christmas.

a Sally already has a bike like that one. Sally likes riding a bike.

a Sally may prefer a different gift. 17. What does the woman suggest that the man do? Take a break. Go to work. O Do the other problems a Keep trying.

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335

QUESTION DIRECTIONS - Part B In Part B of the Listening Section, you will hear several longer conversations and talks. Each conversation or talk is followed by several questions. The conversations, talks, and questions will not be repeated. The conversations and talks are about a variety of topics. You do not need special knowledge of the topics to answer the questions correctly. Rather, you should answer each question on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in the conversations or talks. For most of the questions, you will need to click on the best of four possible answers. Some questions will have special directions. The special directions will appear in a box on the computer screen.

18. What is the topic under discussion?

a Whether to introduce the metric system in the United States.

a How the metric system should be introduced in the United States. Which system is better-the English system or the metric system. a How to convert measurements from the English system to the metric system.

19. What changes in measurement in the United States have the students observed?

a Now the weather on radio and TV is reported exclusively in metrics. Road signs have miles marked on them, but not kilometers. a Both the English system and the metric system are being used on signs, packages, and in weather reports. a Grocery stores use only metrics for their packaging.

20. What was Professor Baker's opinion?

a He thought that a gradual adoption would be better for everyone. He thought that only metrics should be used. He thought that only the English system should be used. a He thought that adults should use both systems, but that children should be taught only the metric system. Which word best describes Professor Baker's attitude toward his students?

GD Unfriendly. Patronizing. O Uninterested.

Cooperative.

22. What is the talk mainly about? GD Private industry. GD Advances in medicine. O Space missions.

a Technological developments. 23. Which of the advances listed are NOT mentioned as part of the technology developed for space missions? GD Contact lenses.

a Cordless tools. O Food packaging.

a Ultrasound. 24. According to the speaker, why did NASA develop ultrasound?

To monitor the condition of astronauts in spacecraft. a To evaluate candidates who wanted to join the space program. O To check the health of astronauts when they returned from space. To test spacecraft and equipment for imperfections. 25. Why does the speaker mention archeology?

Archaeologists and astronauts were compared. GD Astronauts made photographs of the earth later used by archaeologists. O Archaeologists have used advances in medical technology developed for astronauts. a Space missions and underwater missions are very similar.

TOEFL MODEL TESTS

336

26. Why did the student want to see the professor? GD To give her a note from another student. a To ask for an excused absence from

class. O To get notes from a class that she had

missed. To make an appointment for help in a class.

32. According to the speaker, what happened in 1848? GD Gold was discovered. a The Transcontinental Railroad was completed. O The Golden Gate Bridge was constructed. a Telegraph communications were established with the East.

33. How long is the Golden Gate Bridge? 27. What is the student's problem? GD She cannot see the slides and videos

from her seat. CD Her friend's notes are difficult to read. She has been absent from class too often. a Her family needs her help next week.

28. What does the professor offer to do? Ask another student to take notes for the woman. Meet with the woman to clarify the classes she will miss. Make an appointment for the woman with another professor. a Repeat the lecture for the woman.

@

29. What is the professor's attitude in this conversation? @

Disinterested.

a Helpful. O Appreciative.

a Confused. 30. What is the main purpose of thls talk?

GD Transportation on the Pacific Coast. History of California. O Orientation to San Francisco. a Specifications of the Golden Gate Bridge. 31. According to the speaker, what was the settlement called before it was renamed San Francisco?

Golden Gate. San Francisco de Asis Mission. O Military Post Seventy-six. @, Yerba Buena. @

GD Eighteen miles. GD 938 feet. O One mile.

Between five and six miles.

34. What does the lecturer mainly discuss? GD Transcendentalism.

a Puritanism. O Ralph Waldo Emerson.

a Nature. 35. During which century did the literary movement develop? Seventeenth century. Eighteenth century. O Nineteenth century. Twentieth century. @

36. According to the speaker, what did the Puritans do? GD They stressed the importance of the

individual. They supported the ideals of the Transcendental Club. O They believed that society was more important than the individual. They established a commune at Brook Farm.

37. What is Walden? GD A book by Emerson. CD A history of Puritanism. O A novel by Nathaniel Hawthorne.

a A book by Thoreau.

MODEL TEST 4

38. What is the purpose of this conversation?

GD The man is looking for help with his re-

337

43. Identify the fan in the solar heating system. m r :

search.

a The man is applying for a teaching position. O The man is being trained to give library orientation. a The man is interviewing for a job in the library.

39. Who is the man? GD A teacher.

A librarian. O A graduate student. a A computer programmer.

44. What problem does the professor point out? 40. What does the man need to do when he is not working? GD Take a few days off.

a Begin his own research. O Write his dissertation.

Solar heating is very expensive. The sun may not be available every day. O Solar storage systems are too small. a The sun does not supply enough energy without other power sources. @

C D Take classes. 41. When would the man be available? GD After he graduates. GD when he completes his dissertation. O After work and on his days off.

Immediately. 42. Which two requirements are considered when mounting a solar collector on a roof?

The angle of the collector. The thickness of the glass. The direction of the exposure. The temperature of the air.

45. Why does the professor mention the project to place solar modules in orbit?

It has the potential to generate cheap power. OD It is a research project that he is work-

ing on. O It is the same basic principle he has been explaining. It is an example of a very complex model of a solar heating system.

46. What is the purpose of this conversation? GD The man wants to apply for a tutoring

position. GD The man needs to arrange for tutoring. O The man is looking for a friend who

works at the Tutoring Center.

a The woman is tutoring the man.

48. How much will the tutoring cost? GD Five dollars an hour.

GD A check for five dollars.

CD Four dollars a session. 8 Whatever the student can afford. a There is no fee for the sessions.

a A composition.

a Books and notes. O His class schedule.

MODEL TEST 4

339

Section 2: Structure This section measures the ability to recognize language that is appropriate for standard written English. There are two types of questions in this section. In the first type of question, there are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence, there are four words or phrases. You will choose the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence. Clicking on a choice darkens the oval. After you click on Next and Confirm Answer, the next question will be presented. The second type of question has four underlined words or phrases. You will choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct. Clicking on an underlined word or phrase will darken it. After you click on Next and Confirm Answer, the next question will be presented. 1. Based on the premise that light was composed of color, the Impressionists came to the conclusion not really black.

a which was that shadows a was shadows which a were shadows @

that shadows were

2. -a parliamentary system, the prime minister must be appointed on the basis of the distribution of power in the parliament.

To be considered Considering a Considers automatic data processing has

a

grown rapid since the first large calculators

o

m

were introduced in 1950. 4. Vaslav Nijinsky achieved world recognition

m

as both -

a

a dancer as well as a choreographer.

a

a

5. -of the play Mourning Becomes Electra introduces the cast of characters and hints at the plot. GD The act first

a 4 c t one O Act first @

First act

a

a

ferns are quite varied in th&

a

size and

structure. 7. As soon as with an acid, salt, and sometimes water, is formed.

a a base will react CD a base reacts

a a base is reacting the reaction of a base

a The considered

3. Interest

6. The plants that & belong to the family of

8. Columbus Day is celebrated on the twelve of e, a 0 October because on that day in 1492,

a

Christopher Columbus first landed in the Americas.

9. One of the most influence newspapers in the @

a

U.S. The New York Times, which is 0 widely distributed throughout the world.

a

10. Weathering the action whereby surface rock is disintegrated or decomposed. GD it is a is that 0 is a being

340

TOEFL MODEL TESTS

11. Coastal and inland waters are inhabited

a

not only by fish but also by such sea creature a 0 a as shrimps and clams.

18. Although Margaret Mead had several assistants during her long investigations of Samoa, the bulk of the research was done by alone. GD herself

a she

12. Economists have tried to discourage the use

a

O her

a

a hers

of th'e phrase "underdeveloped nation" and

19. Miami, Florida, is among the few cities in the @

encouraging the more accurate phrase

a

O

United States that has been a w a r d d official status as bilingual municipalities.

CD

ongoing process.

13. A gas hi propane will combination with

20. Fertilizers are used primarily to enrich soil @

a

e,

21.

CD 14. The people of Western Canada have been considering themselves from the rest of the provinces.

a But a CD It is a a

A

22. If the ozone gases of the atmosphere

a separating 15. Although it cannot be proven, mesumable e, CD a the expansion of the universe will slow down as it avvroaches a critical radius.

a

16. A City University professor reported that he discovers a vaccine that has been 80 percent

a

effective in reducing the instances of tooth

a

decay among small children.

a

17. When they have been frightened, as, for @

a

an electrical storm, dairy cows 0

may refuse giving: milk.

a

war correspondent, Hemingway used his experiences for some of his most powerful novels.

a While

GD to separate GD separated O separate

example,

a

a

a

a solid called a hydrate.

a

and increasing yield.

water molecules in a saline solution to form

e,

a

a

"developing nation" in order to suggest an

did not filter ouj the ultraviolet rays of the 09 sun, life as we know would not have a 0 evolved on Earth.

~

a

23. Thirty-eight national sites are known as parks, another eighty-two as monuments, . and the another one hundred seventy-eight as historical sites CD the other one hundred seventy-eight as historical sites O seventy-eight plus one hundred more as historical sites a as historical sites one hundred seventyeight

MODEL TEST 4

24. When he was a little boy, Mark Twain

m

would walk along the piers, watch the river CD 0 boats, s y i m . i @ and fish in the Mississippi,

a

much like his famous character, Tom Sawyer.

341

25. Almost all books have a few errors in them

a

in spite of the care taken to check & proof a 0 a pages before the final printing.

342

TOEFL MODEL TESTS

Section 3: Reading This section measures the ability to read and understand short passages similar in topic and style to those that students are likely to encounter in North American universities and colleges. This section contains reading passages and questions about the passages. There are several different types of questions in this section. In the Reading Section, you will first have the opportunity to read the passage. You will use the scroll bar to view the rest of the passage. When you have finished reading the passage, you will use the mouse to click on Proceed. Then the questions about the passage will be presented. You are to choose the one best answer to each question. Answer all questions about the information in a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage. Most of the questions will be multiple-choice questions. To answer these questions you will click on a choice below the question. To answer some questions, you will click on a word or phrase. To answer some questions, you will click on a sentence in the passage. To answer some questions, you will click on a square to add a sentence to the passage.

MODEL TEST 4 Precipitation, commonly referred to as rainfall, is a measure of the quantity of atmospheric water in the form of rain, hail, or snow that reaches the ground. The average annual precipitation over the whole of the United States is thirty-six inches per

343

1. What does this passage mainly discuss?

Precipitation CD Snowfall O New York State a A general formula

year. It should be understood, however, that all precipitation is not measured equally. For example, a foot of snow does not equal a foot of precipitation. According to the general formula for computing the precipitation of snowfall, ten inches of snow equals one inch of precipitation. In upper New York State, for example, where there is typically a large amount of snowfall every winter, a hundred inches of snow in one year would be recorded as only ten inches of precipitation. On

2. Which of the following is another word that is often used in place of precipitation? GD Humidity Wetness O Rainfall Rain-snow

3. The term precipitation includes

the other hand, rain is rain. Forty inches of rain

@

would be recorded as forty inches of precipitation.

a rain, hail, and snow

The total annual prec~pitat~on for an area with forty

O rain, snow, and humidity

inches of rain and one hundred inches of snow

CD rain, hail, and humidity

only rainfall

would be recorded as fifty inches of precipitation. The amount of precipitation that an area receives is a combined result of several factors, including location, altitude, proximity to the sea, and the direction of prevailing winds. Most of the precipitation in the United States is brought originally by prevailing winds from the Pacific Ocean, the Gulf,of Mexico, the Atlantic Ocean, and the Great Lakes. Because these prevailing winds generally come from the west, the Pacific Coast receives more annual precipitation than the Atlantic Coast. Along the Pacific Coast itself, however, altitude causes some diversity in rainfall. 'The mountain ranges of the United States, especially the Rocky Mountain Range and the Appalachian Mountain Range, influence the amount

of precipitation in the areas to the windward and leeward sides of these ranges. East of the Rocky Mountains, the annual precipitation is substantially less than that west of the Rocky Mountains. The precipitation north of the Appalachian Mountains averages 40 percent less than that south of the Appalachian Mountains. As air currents from the oceans move over land, the air must rise to pass over the mountains. The air cools, and the water that is held in the clouds falls as rain or snow on the ascending side of the mountains. The air, therefore, is much drier on the other side of the mountains.

4. What is the average annual rainfall in inches in the United States? GD Thirty-six inches

a Thirty-eight inches O Forty inches

a Forty-two inches 5. If a state has 40 inches of snow in a year, by how much does this increase the annual precipitation? GD By two feet

CD By four inches O By four feet a By 40 inches

344

TOEFL MODEL TESTS

6. The phrase closest in meaning to

in paragraph 2 is

GD communication with

a dependence on O nearness to a similarity to

The total annual precipitation for an area with forty inches of rain and one hundred inches of snow would be recorded as fifty inches of precipitation. The amount of precipitation that an area receives is a combined result of several factors, including location, altitude, pioxTmvTo the sea, and the direction of prevailing winds. Most of the precipitation in the United States is brought originally by prevailing winds from the Pacific Ocean, the Gulf of Mexico, the Atlantic Ocean, and the Great Lakes. Because these prevailing winds generally come from the west, the Pacific Coast receives more annual precipitation than the Atlantic Coast. Along the Paclfic Coast itself, however, altitude causes some diversity in rainfall. The mountain ranges of the United States, especially the Rocky Mountain Range and the Appalachian Mountain Range, influence the amount of precipitation in the areas to the windward and leeward sides of these ranges. East of the Rocky Mountains, the annual precipitation is substantially less than that west of the Rocky Mountains. The precipitation north of the Appalachian Mountains averages 40 percent less than that south of the

7. Click on the sentence in paragraph 2 that identifies the origins of most of the precipitation in the United States. Paragraph 2 is marked with an arrow (+).

The total annual precipitation for an area with forty inches of rain and one hundred inches of snow would be recorded as fifty inches of precipitation. -+The amount of precipitation that an area receives is a combined result of several factors, including location, altitude, proximity to the sea, and the direction of prevailing winds. Most of the precipitation in the United States is brought originally by prevailing winds from the Pacific Ocean, the Gulf of Mexico, the Atlantic Ocean, and the Great Lakes. Because these prevailing winds generally come from the west, the Pacific Coast receives more annual precipitation than the Atlantic Coast. Along the Pacific Coast itself, however, altitude causes some diversity in rainfall. The mountain ranges of the United States, especially the Rocky Mountain Range and the Appalachian Mountain Range, influence the amount of precipitation in the areas to the windward and leeward sides of these ranges. East of the Rocky Mountains, the annual precipitation is substantially less than that west of the Rocky Mountains. The

8. Where is the annual precipitation highest? GD The Atlantic Coast

a The Great Lakes

O The Gulf of Mexico CD The Pacific Coast

9. Which of the followinn was NOT mentioned as a factor in dGermining the amount of precipitation that an area will receive? GD Mountains CD Latitude O The sea a Wind

10. The word in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by GD fundamentally slightly completely CD apparently

The mountain ranges of the United States, especially the Rocky Mountain Range and the Appalachian Mountain Range, influence the amount of precipitation in the areas to the windward and leeward sides of these ranges. East of the Rocky Mountains, the annual precipitation is'fbistantiaR'y less than that west of the Rocky Mountains. The precipitat~onnorth of the Appalachian Mountains averages 40 percent less than that south of the Appalachian Mountains. As air currents from the oceans move over land, the air must rise to pass over the mountains. The air cools, and the water that is held in the clouds falls as rain or snow on the ascending side of the mountains. The air, therefore, is much drier on the other side of the mountains.

MODEL TEST 4

11. The word P ! ER in paragraph 2 refers to decreases precipitation O areas a mountain ranges

United States organized and participated in a large number of reform movements, including movements to reorganize the prison system, improve education, ban the sale of alcohol, grant rlgnts to people wno were aen~eothem, and, most importantly, free slaves Some women saw

The mountain ranges of the United States, especially the Rocky Mountain Range and the Appalachian Mountain Range, influence the amount of precipitation in the areas to the windward and leeward sides of these ranges. East of the Rocky Mountains, the annual precipitation is substantially less than that west of the Rocky Mountains. The precipitation north of the Appalachian Mountains averages 40 percent less than t h d south of the Appalachian Mountains.As air currents from the oceans move over land, the air must rise to pass over the mountains. The air cools, and the water that is held in the clouds falls as rain or snow on the ascending side of the mountains. The air, therefore, is much drier on the other side of the mountains.

similarities in the social status of women and slaves. Women like Elizabeth Cady Stanton and Lucy Stone were not only feminists who fought for

the rights of women but also fervent abolitionists who fought to do away with slavery. These brave people were social leaders who supported the rights of both women and blacks. They were fighting against a belief that voting should be tied to land ownership, and because land was owned by men, and in some cases by their widows, only those who held the greatest stake in government, that is the male landowners, were considered worthy of the vote. Women did not conform to the requirements. A number of male abolitionists, including

William Lloyd Garrison and Wendell Phillips, also supported the rights of women to speak and to participate equally with men in antislavery activities. Probably more than any other movement, abolitionism offered women a previously denied entry into politics. They became involved primarily in order to better their living conditions and improve the conditions of others. However, they gained the respect of those they convinced and also earned the right to be considered equal citizens. When the civil war between the North and the South ended in 1865, the Fourteenth and Fifteenth Amendments to the Constitution adopted in 1868 and 1870 granted citizenship and suffrage to blacks but not to women. Discouraged but resolved, feminists worked tirelessly to influence more and more women to demand the right to vote. In 1869, the Wyoming Territory had yielded to demands by feminists, but the states on the East Coast resisted more stubbornly than before. A women's suffrage bill had been presented to every Congress since 1878, but it continually failed to pass until 1920, when the Nineteenth Amendment granted women the right to vote.

345

TOEFL MODEL TESTS

346

12. With what topic is the passage primarily concerned? The Wyoming Territory GD The Fourteenth and Fifteenth Amendments @

Abolitionists Women's suffrage

13. The,word Efffin paragraph 1 most nearly means to 'encourage publish O prohibit limit

During the nineteenth century, women in the United States organized and participated in a large number of reform movements, including movements to reorganize the prison system, improve education, ban the sale of alcohol, grant rights to people who were denied them, and, most importantly, free slaves. Some women saw similarities in the social status of women and slaves. Women like Elizabeth Cady Stanton and Lucy Stone were not only feminists who fought for the r~ghtsof women but also fervent abolitionists who fought to do away with slavery. These brave people were social leaders who supported the rights of both women and blacks. They were fighting against a belief that voting should be tied to land ownership, and because land was owned by men, and in some cases by their widows, only those who held the greatest stake in government, that is the male landowners, were considered worthy of the vote. Women did not conform to the requirements. A number of male abolitionists, including William Lloyd Garrison and Wendell Phillips, also supported the rights of women to speak and to

14. Click on the sentence in paragraph 1 that explains the relationship between voting and property.

Paragraph 1 is marked with an arrow (+).

--+ Durlng the nlneteenth century, women In the Un~tedStates organized and partlctpated ~na large number of reform movements, lnclud~ng movements to reorganlze the F Ison system. Improve education, ban the sale of alcohol, grant rlghts to people who were denled them, and, most rmportantly, free slaves. Some women saw similarities in the social status of women and slaves. Women like Elizabeth Cady Stanton and Lucy Stone were not only feminists who fought for the rights of women but also fervent abolitionists who fought to do away with slavery. These brave people were social leaders who supported the rights of both women and blacks. They were fighting against a belief that voting should be tied to land ownership, and because land was owned by men, and in some cases by their widows, only those who held the greatest stake in government, that is the male landowners, were considered worthy of the vote. Women did not conform to the requirements. A number of male abolitionists, including William Lloyd Garrison and Wendell Phillips, also supported the rights of women to speak and to

15. The word F r n m in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to GD above all

CD somewhat O finally

a always the rights of women but also fervent abolitionists who fought to do away with slavery. These brave people were social leaders who supported the rights of both women and blacks. They were fightlng agalnst a belief that voting should be tied to land ownership, and because land was owned by men, and In some cases by their widows, only those who held the greatest stake in government, that is the male landowners, were considered worthy of the vote. Women did not conform to the requirements. A number of male abolitionists, including William Lloyd Garrison and Wendell Phillips, also supported the rights of women to speak and to participate equally with men in ant~slaveryactivities. Probably more than any other movement, abolitionism offered women a previously denied entry into politics. They became involved primarily in order to better their living conditions and improve the conditions of others. However, they gained the respect of those they convinced and also earned the right to be considered equal citizens. When the civil war between the North and the

MODEL TEST 4

16. Look at the word in the passage. Click on the word or phrase in the bold text that is closest in meaning to v e .

18. The word in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by which of the following? @

pain

a citizenship O freedom from bondage

a the right to vote

requirements. A number of male abolitionists, including William Lloyd Garrison and Wendell Phillips, also supported the rights of women to speak and to participate equally with men in antislavery activities. Probably more than any other movement, abolitionism offered women a previously denied entry into politics.They became involved primarily in order to better their living conditions and Improve the conditions of others. However, they gained the respect of those they convinced and also earned the right to be considered equal citizens. When the civil war between the North and the South ended in 1865, the Fourteenth and Fifteenth Amendments to the Constitution adopted in 1868 and 1870 granted citizenship and suffrage to

17. What had occurred shortly after the Civil War? GD The Wyoming Territory was admitted to

the Union. QD A women's suffrage bill was introduced in Congress. The eastern states resisted the end of the war. a Black people were granted the right to

347

abolitionism offered women a previously denled entry into politics. They became involved primarily in order to better their living conditions and improve the conditions of others. However, they gained the respect of those they convinced and also earned the right to be considered equal citizens. When the civil war between the North and the South ended in 1865, the Fourteenth and Fifteenth Amendments to the Constitutionadopted in 1868 and 1870 granted citizenship and suffragB to blacks but not to women. Discouraged but resolved, feminists worked tirelessly to influence more and more women to demand the right to vote. In 1869, the Wyoming Territory had yielded to demands by feminists, but the states on the East Coast resisted more stubbornly than before. A women's suffrage bill had been presentedto every Congress since 1878, but it continually failed to pass until 1920, when the Nineteenth Amendment granted women the right to vote.

TOEFL MODEL TESTS

348

19. The word 'R" in paragraph 3 refers to

The Acacia, a genus of trees and shrubs of

Q9 bill

the mimosa family that originated in Australia, has

Congress O Nineteenth Amendment a vote

stick structures. The acacia is called a wattle in

long been used there in building simple mud and Australia, and the structures are said to be made of daub and wattle. The acacia is actually related to the family of plants known as legumes that includes peas, beans, lentils, peanuts, and pods

abolitionism offered women a previously denied entry into politics. They became involved primarily in order to better their living conditions and improve the conditions of others. However, they garned the respect of those they convinced and also earned the right to be considered equal citizens. When the civil war between the North and the South ended in 1865, the Fourteenth and Fifteenth Amendments to the Constitution adopted in 1868 and 1870 granted citizenship and suffrage to blacks but not to women. Discouraged but resolved, feminists worked tirelessly to influence more and more women to demand the right to vote. In 1869, the Wyoming Territory had yielded to demands by feminists, but the states on the East Coast resisted more stubbornly than before. A women's suffrage bill had been presented to every Congress since 1878, but ?f continually failed to pass until 1920, when the Nineteenth Amendment granted women the right to vote.

with beanlike seeds. Some acacias actually produce edible crops. Other Acacia varieties are valued for the sticky resin, called gum arabic or gum acacia, used widely in medicines, foods, and perfumes, for the dark dense wood prized for making pianos, or for the bark, rich in tannin, a dark, acidic substance used to cure the hides of animals, transforming them into leather. Nearly five hundred species of Acacia have been analyzed, identified, categorized, and proven capable of survival in hot and generally arid parts of the world; however, only a dozen of the three hundred Australian varieties thrive in the southern United States. Most acacia imports are low spreading trees, but of these, only three flower, including the Bailey Acacia with fernlike silver leaves and small, fragrant flowers arranged in rounded clusters, the Silver Waffle, similar to the

Bailey Acacia, which grows twice as high, and the

20. What does the Nineteenth Amendment guarantee? CO Voting rights for blacks GD Citizenship for blacks O Voting rights for women CD

Citizenship for women

21. When were women allowed to vote throughout the United States?

After a After O After a After Q9

1866 1870 1878 1920

squat Sydney Golden Wattle, bushy with broad, flat leaves, showy bright yellow blossoms, and sharp spined twigs. Another variety, the Black

Acacia, also called the Blackwood, has dark green foliage and unobtrusive blossoms. Besides being a popular ornamental tree, the Black Acacia is considered valuable for its dark wood, which is used in making furniture, as well as highly prized musical instruments. The Acacia's unusual custom of blossoming in February has been commonly attributed to its Australian origins, as if the date and not the quality of light made the difference for a tree in its flowering cycle. In the Southern Hemisphere, the seasons are reversed, and February, which is wintertime in the United States, is summertime in Australia. Actually, however, the pale, yellow blossoms appear in August in Australia. Whether growing in the Northern or Southern Hemisphere, the lovely acacia blossoms in winter.

MODEL TEST 4

22. With which of the following topics is the passage primarily concerned? The Black Acacia Characteristics and varieties of the Acacia O Australian varieties of the Acacia a The use of Acacia wood in ornamental furniture

23. Look at the word in the passage. Click on the word or phrase in the bold text that is closest in meaning to mZ'tf8.

includes peas, beans, lentils, peanuts, and pods with beanlike seeds. Some acacias actually produce edible crops. Other Acacia varieties are valued for the sticky resin, called gum arabic or gum acacia, used widely in medicines, foods, and perfumes, for the dark dense wood prlied for making pianos, or for the bark, rich in tannin, a dark, acidic substance used to cure the hides of animals, transforming them into leather. Nearly five hundred species of Acacia have been analyzed, identified, categorized, and proven capable of survival in hot and generally arid parts of the world; however, only a dozen of the three hundred Australian varieties thrive in the southern United States. Most acacia im~ortsare low spreading trees, but of these, drily three flower, including the Bailey Acacia with fernlike silver leaves and small, fragrant flowers arranged in rounded clusters, the Silver Wattle, similar to the Bailey Acacia, which grows twice as high, and the squat Sydney Golden Wattle, bushy with broad, flat leaves, showy bright yellow blossoms, and sharp spined twigs. Another variety, the Black Acacia. also called the Blackwood, has dark areen

24. How many species of Acacia grow well in the southern United States?

a Five hundred a Three hundred O Twelve

a Three

349

25. The word TfFET in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to which of the following?

a grow well a are found O were planted

a can live includes peas, beans, lentils, peanuts, and pods with beanlike seeds. Some acacias actually produce edible crops. Other Acacia varieties are valued for the sticky resin, called gum arabic or gum acacia, used widely in medicines, foods, and perfumes, for the dark dense wood prized for making pianos, or for the bark, rich in tannin, a dark, acidic substance used to cure the hides of animals, transforming them into leather. Nearly five hundred species of Acacia have been analyzed, identified, categorized, and proven capable of survival in hot and generally arid parts of the world; however, only a dozen of the three hundred Australian varieties tfirive in the southem United States. Most acacia imports are low spreading trees, but of these, only three flower, including the Bailey Acacia with fernlike silver leaves and small, fragrant flowers arranged in rounded clusters, the Silver Wattle, similar to the Bailey Acacia, which grows twice as high, and the squat Sydney Golden Waflle, bushy with broad, flat leaves, showy bright yellow blossoms, and sharp spined twigs. Another variety, the Black Acacia, also called the Blackwood, has dark green

350

TOEFL MODEL TESTS

26. The word ITiET? in paragraph 2 refers to

a United States GD varieties O species

a trees includes peas, beans, lentils, peanuts, and pods with beanlike seeds. Some acacias actually produce edible crops. Other Acacia varieties are valued for the sticky resin, called gum arabic or gum acacia, used widely in medicines, foods, and perfumes, for the dark dense wood prized for making pianos, or for the bark, rich in tannin, a dark, acidic substance used to cure the hides of animals, transforming them into leather. Nearly five hundred species of Acacia have been analyzed, identified, categorized, and proven capable of s u ~ i v ain l hot and generally arid parts of the world; however, only a dozen of the three hundred Australian varieties thrive in the southern United States. Most acacia imports are low spreading trees, but of t h e s i only three flower, including the Bailey Acacia with fernlike silver leaves and small, fragrant flowers arranged in rounded clusters, the Silver Wattle,similar to the Bailey Acacia, which grows twice as high, and the squat Sydney Golden Wattle, bushy with broad, flat leaves, showy bright yellow blossoms, and sharp spined twigs. Another variety, the Black Acacia, also called the Blackwood, has dark green

27. According to this passage, the Silver Wattle GD is squat and bushy GD has unobtrusive blossoms O is taller than the Bailey Acacia CD is used for making furniture

28. In paragraph 2, the word TET most nearly means smooth

a pretty pointed short

includes peas, beans, lentils, peanuts, and pods with beaniike seeds. Some acacias actuallv produce edible crops. Other Acacia varieties are valued for the sticky resin, called gum arabic or gum acacia, used widely in medicines, foods, and perfumes, for the dark dense wood prized for making pianos, or for the bark, rich in tannin, a dark, acidic substance used to cure the hides of animals, transforming them into leather. Nearly five hundred species of Acacia have been analyzed, identified, categorized, and proven capable of s u ~ i v ain l hot and generally arid parts of the world; however, only a dozen of the three hundred Australian varieties thrive in the southern United States. Most acacia imports are low spreading trees, but of these, only three flower, including the Bailey Acacia with fernlike silver leaves and small, fragrant flowers arranged in rounded clusters, the Silver Wattle, similar to the Bailey Acacia, which grows twice as high, and the squat Sydney Golden Wattle, bushy with broad, flat leaves, showy bright yellow blossoms, and sharp spined twigs. Another variety, the Black Acacia, also called the Blackwood, has dark green

MODEL TEST 4

29. The word be replaced by

in paragraph 2 could best

strange CD elaborate O huge

a fragile

351

33. The following sentence can be added to the passage.

Some acacias are popular in landscaping because of their graceful shapes, lacey foliage, and fragrant blossoms. Where would it best fit in the passage?

includes peas, beans, lentils, peanuts, and pods with beanlike seeds. Some acacias actually produce edible crops. Other Acacia varieties are valued for the sticky resin, called gum arabic or gum acacia, used widely in medicines, foods, and perfumes, for the dark dense wood prized for making pianos, or for the bark, rich in tannin, a dark, acidic substance used to cure the hides of animals, transforming them into leather. Nearly five hundred species of Acacia have been analyzed, identified, categorized, and proven capable of survival in hot and generally arid parts of the world; however, only a dozen of the three hundred Australian varieties thrive in the southern United States. Most acacia imports are low spreading trees, but of these, only three flower, including the Bailey Acacia with fernlike silver leaves and small, fragrant flowers arranged in rounded clusters, the Silver Wattle, similar to the Bailey Acacia, which grows twice as high, and the squat Sydney Golden Wattle, bushy with broad, flat leaves, sh;owy bright yellow blossoms, and sharp spined twigs. Another variety, the Black Acacia, also called the Blackwood, has dark green

30. Whlch of the following Acacias has the least colorful blossoms?

a Bailey Acacia CD Sydney Golden Wattle O Silver Wattle CD Black Acacia

3 1. Which of the following would most probably be made from a Black Acacia tree?

a A flower arrangement C D A table O A pie

a Paper 32. When do Acacia trees bloom in Australia? CD February @ Summer O August CD Spring

Click on the square (m) to add the sentence to the passage. Scroll the passage to see all of the choices.

The Acacia, a genus of trees and shrubs of the mimosa family that originated in Australia, has long been used there in building simple mud and stick structures.mThe acacia is called a wattle in Australia, and the structures are said to be made of daub and wattle.mThe acacia is actually related to the family of plants known as legumes that includes peas, beans, lentils, peanuts, and pods with beanlike seeds. Some acacias actually produce edible crops. n Other Acacia varieties are valued for the sticky resin, called gum arabic or gum acacia, used widely in medicines, foods, and perfumes, for the dark dense wood prized for making pianos, or for the bark, rich in tannin, a dark, acidic substance used to cure the hides of animals, transforming them into leather. Nearly five hundred species of Acacia have been analyzed, identified, categorized, and proven capable of survival in hot and generally arid parts of the world; however, only a dozen of the three hundred Australian varieties thrive in the southern United States. Most acacia imports are low spreading trees, but of these, only three flower, including the BaileyAcacia with fernlike silver

i

~

I

~1 i 1

1 I

I

352

TOEFL MODEL TESTS In 1626, Peter Minuit, governor of the Dutch

settlements in North America known as New Amsterdam, negotiated with Canarsee chiefs for the purchase of Manhattan Island.for merchandise

34. Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?

a A History of New York City a An Account of the Dutch Colonies

valued at sixty guilders or about $24.12. He

O A Biography of Peter Minuit

purchased the island for the Dutch West India

a The First Capital of the United States

Company. The next year, Fort Amsterdam was built by the company at the extreme southern tip of the

35. What did the Native Americans receive in exchange for their island?

island. Because attempts to encourage Dutch immigration were not immediately successful,

(23 Sixty Dutch guilders

offers, generous by the standards of the era, were

CD

extended throughout Europe. Consequently, the

O Goods and supplies

settlement became the most heterogeneous of the

$24.12 U.S.

a Land in New Amsterdam

North American colonies. By 1637, the fort had expanded into the village of New Amsterdam, other small communities had grown up around it, including New Haarlem and Stuyvesant's

36. Where was New Amsterdam located?

a In Holland In North America

Bouwery, and New Amsterdam began to prosper,

O On the island of Manhattan

developing characteristics of religious and

C D In India

linguistic tolerance unusual for the times. By 1643, it was reported that eighteen different languages

could be heard in New Amsterdam alone. Among the multilingual settlers was a large group of English colonists from Connecticut and Massachusetts who supported the English King's claim to all of New Netherlands set out in a charter that gave the territory to his brother James, Duke of York. In 1644, when the English sent a formidable fleet of warships into the New Amsterdam harbor, Dutch governor Peter Stuyvesant surrendered without resistance. When the English acquired the island, the village of New Amsterdam was renamed New York in honor of the Duke. By the onset of the Revolution, New York City was already a bustling commercial center. After the war, it was selected as the first capital of the United States. Although the government was eventually moved, first to Philadelphia and then to Washington, D.C., New York maintained its status. It became a haven for pirates who conspired with leading merchants to exchange supplies for their ships in return for a share in the plunder. As a colony. New York exchanged many agricultural products for English manufactured goods. In addition, trade with the West lndies prospered. Three centuries after his initial trade with the Native Americans, Minuit's tiny investment was worth more than seven billion dollars.

MODEL TEST 4

37. What does the author mean by the statement 38. The word in paragraph 2 B F E a T s ~ 9 ~ g ~ - could best be replaced by immigration were not immediately liberal successful, offers, generous by the sXBlBBtF CD renowned of the era, were extended throughout Europe ? O diverse GD Other Europeans were given opportunia prosperous ties to immigrate to the new world after a slow response by the Dutch. Since the Dutch immigration was so In 1626, Peter Minuit, governor of the Dutch successful, opportunities were provided settlements in North America known as New for the Europeans to immigrate to the Amsterdam, negotiated with Canarsee chiefs for the purchase of Manhattan Island for new world also. merchandise valued at sixty guilders or about The Dutch took advantage of opportuni$24.12. He purchased the island for the Dutch ties to immigrate to Europe instead of to West lndia Company. The next year, Fort Amsterdam was built by the new world. the company at the extreme southern tip of the Immigration to the new world required island. Because attempts to encourage Dutch that the Dutch and other Europeans wait ~mmigrationwere not immediately successful, offers, generous by the standards of the era, were until opportunities were available.

In 1626, Peter Minuit, governor of the Dutch settlements in North America known as New Amsterdam, negotiated with Canarsee chiefs for the purchase of Manhattan Island for merchandise valued at sixty guilders or about $24.12. He purchased the island for the Dutch West lndia Company. The next year, Fort Amsterdam was built by the company at the extreme southern tip of the island. P3ecaGetatt'eKist o ~ n c o i j ~ Dfih e fmmigiation were not immediately successful, affers, generous by the standards of the era, w m extended throughout Europe. Consequently, the settlement became the most heterogeneous of the North American colonies. By 1637, the fort had expanded into the village of New Amsterdam, other small communities had grown up around it, including New Haarlem and Stuyvesant's Bouwery, and New Amsterdam began to prosper, developing characteristics of religious and linguistic tolerance unusual for the times. By 1643, it was reported that eighteen different languages could be heard in New Amsterdam alone. Among the multilingual settlers was a large

extended throughout Europe. Consequently, the settlement became the most heterogeneousof the North American colonies. By 1637, the fort had expanded into the village of New Amsterdam, other small communities had grown up around it, including New Haariem and Stuyvesant's Bouwery, and New Amsterdam began to prosper, developing characteristics of religious and linguistic tolerance unusual for the times. By 1643, it was reported that eighteen different languages could be heard in New Amsterdam alone. Among the multilingual settlers was a large

353

354

TOEFL MODEL TESTS

39. Why were so many languages spoken in New Amsterdam? GD The Dutch West India Company was owned by England. a The Dutch West India Company allowed freedom of speech. O The Dutch West India Company recruited settlers from many different Countries in Europe. a The Indians who lived there before the Dutch West India Company purchase spoke many languages.

40. Look at the word lVF in the passage. Click on the word or phrase in the bold text that TE refers to.

extended throughout Europe. Consequently, the settlement became the most heterogeneous of the North American colonies. By 1637, the fort had expanded into the village of New Amsterdam, other small communities had grown up around it, including New Haarlem and Stuyvesant's Bouwery, and New Amsterdam began to prosper, developing characteristics of religious and linguistic tolerance unusual for the times. By 1643, it was reported that eighteen different languages could be heard in New Amsterdam alone. Among the multilingual settlers was a large group of English colonists from Connecticut and Massachusetts who supported the English King's claim to all of New Netherlands set out in a charter that gave the territory to his brother James, Duke of York. In 1644, when the English sent a formidable fleet of warships into the New Amsterdam harbor, Dutch governor Peter Stuyvesant surrendered without resistance. When the English acquired the island, the village of New Amsterdam was renamed New York in honor of the Duke. By the onset of the Revolution, New York City was already a bustling

41. The word in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to GD powerful

modem O expensive

a unexpected extended throughout Europe. Consequently, the settlement became the most heteroqeneous of the North American colonies. By 1637, the fort had expanded into the village of New Amsterdam, other small communities had grown up around it, including New Haarlem and Stuyvesant's Bouwery, and New Amsterdam began to prosper, developing characteristics of religious and linguistic tolerance unusual for the times. By 1643, it was reported that eighteen different languages could be heard in New Amsterdam alone. Among the multilingual settlers was a large group of English colonists from Connecticut and Massachusetts who supported the English King's claim to all of New Netherlands set out in a charter that gave the territory to his brother James, Duke of York. In 1644, when the English sent a fon-iidable fleet of warships into the New Amsterdam harbor, Dutch governor Peter Stuyvesant surrendered without resistance. When the English acquired the island, the village of New Amsterdam was renamed New York in honor of the Duke. By the onset of the Revolution, New York City was already a bustling

42. Click on the paragraph that explains the reason for renaming New Amsterdam.

Scroll the passage to see all of the paragraphs.

MODEL TEST 4

43. The word

in paragraph 4 refers to

Revolution New York City O the island @> the first capital

355

44. Which city was the first capital of the new

United States?

'@

Massachusetts who supported the English King's claim to all of New Netherlands set out in a charter that gave the territory to his brother James, Duke of York. In 1644, when the English sent a formidable fleet of warships into the New Amsterdam harbor, Dutch governor Peter Stuyvesant surrendered without resistance. When the English acquired the island, the village of New Amsterdam was renamed New York in honor of the Duke. By the onset of the Revolution, New York City was already a bustling commercial center. After the war, 'it was selected as the first capital of the United States. Although the government was eventually moved, first to Philadelphia and then to Washington, D.C., New York maintained its status. It became a haven for pirates who conspired with leading merchants to exchange supplies for their ships in return for a share in the plunder. As a colony, New York exchanged many agricultural products for English manufactured goods. In addition, trade with the West lndies prospered. Three centuries after his initial trade with the Indians, Minuit's tiny investment was worth more than seven billion dollars.

New Amsterdam (@, New York O Philadelphia @, Washington 45. On what date was Manhattan valued at $7 billion?

To check your answers for Model Test 4, refer to the Answer Key on page 491. For an explanation of the answers, refer to the Explanatory Answers for Model Test 4 on pages 561-579.

TOEFL MODEL TESTS

356

Writing Section: Model Test 4 When you take a Model Test, you should use one sheet of paper, both sides. Time each Model Test carefully. After you have read the topic, you should spend 30 minutes writing. For results that would be closest to the actual testing situation, it is recommended that an English teacher score your test, using the guidelines on page 244 of this book.

I n your opinion, what is the best way to choose a marriage partner?Use specific reasons and examples why you think this approach i s best. Notes

To check your essay, refer to the Checklist on page 491. For an Example Essay, refer to the Explanatory Answers for Model Test 4 on page 580.

MODEL TEST 5

357

Model Test 5

Computer-Assisted TOEFL

Section 1: Listening The Listening Section of the test measures the ability to understand conversations and talks in English. You will use headphones to listen to the conversations and talks. While you are listening, pictures of the speakers or other information will be presented on your computer screen. There are two parts to the Listening Section, with special directions for each part. On the day of the test, the amount of time you will have to answer all of the questions will appear on the computer screen. The time you spend listening to the test material will not be counted. The listening material and questions about it will be presented only one time. You will not be allowed to take notes or have any paper at your computer. You will both see and hear the questions before the answer choices appear. You can take as much time as you need to select an answer; however, it will be to your advantage to answer the questions as quickly as possible. You may change your answer as many times as you want before you confirm it. After you have confirmed an answer, you will not be able to return to the question. Before you begin worlung on the Listening Section, you will have an opportunity to adjust the volume of the sound. You may not be able to change the volume after you have started the test.

QUESTION DIRECTIONS - Part A In Part A of the Listening Section, you will hear short conversations between two people. In some of the conversations, each person speaks only once. In other conversations, one or both of the people speak more than once. Each conversation is followed by one question about it. Each question in this part has four answer choices. You should click on the best answer to each question. Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers.

1. What is the man going to do?

GD He will borrow some typing paper from the woman. GD He will lend the woman some typing paper. O He will type the woman's paper. CD He will buy some typing paper for the woman.

2. What can be inferred about the man? GD He is a student at the university. GD He is not driving a car. O He knows the woman. CD He needs to go to the drug store.

3. What does the man imply?

a He could not stay with his parents. CD He did not want to change his plans. O He will not go to summer school. C D He has completed all the courses. 4. What are the speakers discussing?

GD The telephone a An apartment O Utilities CD Furniture 5. What does the woman imply? She likes Dr. Taylor's class.

a She is not sure how Dr. Taylor feels. O She did not get an A on the paper. CD She is not doing very well in the class.

CD Be a subject in an experiment O Ask Sandy to participate a Go to a psychologist

7. What can be inferred about the study group meeting? @ The speakers did not go to the study

group meeting.

CD The woman went to the study group meeting, but the man did not. O The man went to the study group meeting, but the woman did not. a Both speakers went to the study group meeting.

8. What does the man mean? GD GD O CD

The woman can borrow his pen. A pen might be a good gift. Her advisor would probably like a card. A gift is not necessary.

9. What does the woman mean? GD CD O CD

She does not want to leave. She must stay. She did not like the dorm. She is undecided.

10. What does the woman imply? GD The man may be taking on too much. CD The job is more important than school. O The opportunity is very good. a The contract may not be valid. 11. What does the man suggest the woman do?

a Call his family CD Write a letter O Send postcards C D Buy presents

CD Where the woman will go to school O States in the Midwest CD The University of Minnesota

13. What will the woman probably do?

GD Buy a ticket CD Go to room 27 O Take a test in room 32 CD Show the man her ticket 14. What can be inferred about the woman? GD CD O CD

She wasn't able to attend the reception. She is an honors student. She likes flowers very much. She is a teacher.

15. What does the woman suggest that Terry do? @ Try to be in class more often CD Try to get the work done O Take the class twice Take the class next term

a

16. What does the man mean? GD He does not like English. CD Graduate school is easier than teaching. O It is not surprising that the woman is doing well. a The course is very interesting. 17. What problem do the students have?

GD They are going to make a group presentation. GD They don't want to have Jane in their group. O Carl does not want to be in their group. a They are not good presenters.

MODEL TEST 5

359

QUESTION DIRECTIONS - Part B In Part B of the Listening Section, you will hear several longer conversations and talks. Each conversation or talk is followed by several questions. The conversations, talks, and questions will not be repeated. The conversations and talks are about a variety of topics. You do not need special knowledge of the topics to answer the questions correctly. Rather, you should answer each question on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in the conversations or talks. For most of the questions, you will need to click on the best of four possible answers. Some questions will have special di.rections. The special directions will appear in a box on the computer screen. 18. What problem do the speakers have? @ They do not have a syllabus.

GD They do not understand the requirement for the research paper. CD They do not have an appointment with the professor. CD They do not know the professor's office hours. 19. How much does the research paper count toward the grade for the course? It is not clear from the syllabus. It is valued at half of the total points for the course. O It is worth ten points. a It will count thirty points. C D

20. What did the professor say last week?

CD GD O CD

She mentioned presentations. She discussed the syllabus. She answered questions. She made appointments.

23. According to the lecturer, what were the two ships commanded by Captain Cook?

-n

z answers:

The Third Voyage The Resolution The Discovery The England 24. Why does the professor mention the name Launo ?

It was the original name for the Hawaiian Islands before Cook's arrival. C D It was the name of the king of Hawaii at the time of Cook's exploration. O It was the name of the god that the islanders believed Cook embodied. C D It was the name of the welcome ceremony that the islanders gave Cook.

25. The professor briefly explains a sequence of events in the history of Hawaii. Summarize the sequence by putting the events in order.

21. What will the students probably do?

GD Prepare a presentation of the research CD Make an appointment to see the professor O Ask questions about the assignment in class C D Go to see the professor during office hours 22. What is the main subject of this lecture?

a Captain Cook's life @ History of Hawaii O Captain Cook's exploration of Hawaii a Hawaiian culture

the space where i t b e l o n ~ k . '

Use each scntence only once

Captain Cook and four of his crew were killed. The islanders and the crew began to fight. The king was to be taken hostage. A small boat was stolen from the crew.

TOEFL MODEL TESTS

360

26. What is an alloy? GO Impure metals that occur accidentally CD Metals melted into liquid form O A planned combination of metals for a specific purpose CD Industrial metals that do not have to be very pure

3 1. How are the words referred to in the discussion? empty box in the correct column.

"

'

Use each word only once.

color centre

.. ,

theater honour

What does the speaker say about the properties of alloys?

fl

They are chosen for a particular purpose. They are combined in specific proportions. They are dificult to determine because there is more than one metal involved. They occur accidentally in nature.

28. Why does the speaker use the example of the aircraft industry?

To demonstrate how alloys can be used to solve industrial problems C D To emphasize the importance of the aviation industry O To compare alloys and other mixtures CD To illustrate how metals can be used without alloying them 29. What is the difference between combinations of metals in nature and alloys?

GD Mixtures of metals in nature afe very pure. CD Combinations of metals do not occur in nature. Metals combined in nahlre are mixed in random proportion. CD Alloys are mixtures, but metals that occur in nature are not.

30. What do the speakers mainly discuss? British English pronunciation C D Spelling patterns O British and American English a Movies

32. What can be inferred about the wordflat in British English? G9 It has a different spelling from that of American English. GD It has a different meaning from that of American English. O The pronunciation is so different that it cannot be understood by Americans. C D It is really about the same in American English.

33. On what did the class agree? British English and American English are the same. CD British English and American English are so different that Americans cannot understand the English when they speak. O British English and American English have different spelling and vocabulary but the same pronunciation. a British English and American English have slightly different spelling, vocabulary, and pronunciation, but Americans and the English still understand each other. 34. What is the presentation mainly about?

a The National Department of Education GD School boards O Public schools in the United States CD Local control of schools

MODEL TEST 5

35. What surprised the presenter about her research?

GD Public schools are not the same throughout the United States. C D The school board members are not professional educators. O The federal department is not the same as a department of education in many other countries. a The members of the school board serve without pay.

39. How much does the plan cost?

GD Fourteen dollars a week CD Thirty dollars a week O Thirty-six dollars a week CD Forty-two dollars a week 40. Why do most residents order a pizza or go out to eat on Sundays?

36. How does each of the persons identified contribute to the operation of schools in the United States?

s empty box in the correct row. w

-

Use each word only once.

superintendent school board member resident of the district governs the local school district carries out the policies of the governing board elects the members of the governing board 37. According to the speaker, what is the function of the department of education in the United States?

To support research projects To organize a national curriculum To monitor national legislation for schools To appoint local school boards 38. What kind of meal plan does the man decide to buy?

Breakfast Lunch Dinner Supper

361

Many of them live close enough to go home for the day. CD They are tired of the food in the dormitory. O No meals are served on Sunday. a Some of them have dates on the weekend.

41. How will the man pay for the meals?

a He will pay the woman in cash for the first quarter. CD He will use his credit card to pay the woman. O He will wait to receive a bill from the dormitory. CD He will write a check on a form provided by the woman. 42. What will the man probably do?

Pay the bill now CD Give the woman his credit card O Fill out a form C D Think about his options

43. What is hydroponics?

GD Growing plants without soil C D Mixing nutrients in water O Finding the chemical composition of soil Solving problems in the water system 44. Why does the professor suggest that the students refer to their lab workbook? @ To see the diagram of the class experiment OD To read an experiment on plant growth O To find a list of substances that plants need C D To locate the instructions for building a hydroponics tank

362

TOEFL MODEL TESTS

45. According to the speaker, why are roots important to plants?

To absorb water and nutrients To take in oxygen To suspend the plants directly in the solution To filter out toxins

46. Why was the pump attached to the tank in this experiment?

a It was needed to mix the nutrients in the solution. It was used to pump out harmful chemicals. O It was required to pump oxygen into the solution. @ It was necessary to anchor the plants. 47. What does the professor want the students to do with the specimen of the nutrient solution?

GD Take a taste of it C D Make a drawing of it O Observe it and draw conclusions C D Put it in the tank

48. What are the speakers discussing? @ A class that the woman missed

GD A book that they have both read O A TV show that the man saw a A video that they saw in class 49. Who was Harriet Tubman? GD She was one of the first freed slaves to work on the railroad. OD She was a slave who worked underground in the mines. O She was a former slave who lived in Canada. CD She was a slave who escaped from her owners in Maryland during the Civil war.

50. What impressed the man about Harriet Tubman's story? GD She used the North Star to guide her to a free state. CD She returned to Maryland to help three hundred slaves escape. O She founded the underground railroad. CD She was a slave for nineteen years.

MODEL TEST 5

363

Section 2: Structure This section measures the ability to recognize language that is appropriate for standard written English. There are two types of questions in this section. In the first type of question, there are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence, there are four words or phrases. You will choose the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence. Clicking on a choice darkens the oval. After you click on Next and Confirm Answer, the next question will be presented. The second type of question has four underlined words or phrases. You will choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct. Clicking on an underlined word or phrase will darken it. After you click on Next and Confirm Answer, the next question will be presented. 1. Gunpowder, in some ways the most effective

a

a

of a]l the explosive materials, were a mixture

a

a

of potassium nitrate, charcoal, and sulfur. 2. As the demand increases, manufacturers who

previouslv produced only a large, luxury car is compelled to make a smaller model in -

a

a

a

order to compete in the market.

3. There are twenty species of wild roses in

a

North America, all of which have prickly

a

stems, pinnate leaves, and large flowers, which usually smell sweetly.

a

4. Professional people expect when it is necessary to cancel an appointment. QD you to call them

C D that you would call them O your calling them that you are calling them

5. In a new culture, many embarrassing situations occur a misunderstanding. GD for a of O because of CD because

6. Factoring is the process of finding two or a GD more expressions whose product is O equal as the given expression.

a

7. Schizophrenia, a behavioral disorder typified by a fundamental break with reality,

a

a

may be triggered by genetic predisposition, O stressful, drugs, or infections.

a

8. Sedimentary rocks are formed below the surface of the Earth very high temperatures and pressures. where there are @ there are

O where are there C D there are where

develo. .

-.

begun to p i & .

City has played a vital role.

a

a

CD the same O as well as a as well

a

had a cold.

a

GD but two years experience CD also two years experience O but also two years experience a but more two years experience 18. The salary of a bus driver is much higher

that gold was discovered at Sutter's Mill and that the California Gold Rush began. Because in 1848 CD That in 1848 a In 1848 that it was C D It was in 1848

13. Frost occurs in valleys and on low grounds on adjacent hills. GD more frequently as CD as frequently than O more frequently than a frequently than

GD i.n comparison with the salary of a teacher GD than a teacher O than that of a teacher CD to compare as a teacher 19. Farmers look forward to summer.

every

GD participating in the county fairs CD participate in the county fairs O be participating in the county fairs a have participated in the county fairs

20. A turtle differs from all other reptiles in that

14. The native people of the Americas are called

CD Indians because when Columbus landed in

a

the Bahamas in 1492, he thought that he O has reached the East Indies.

a

very rapidly

a in a rapid manner 17. Employers often require that candidates . have not only a degree

11. Although the Red Cross accepts blood from GD most donors, the nurses will not leave you

16. When a body enters the Earth's atmosphere, . it travels

O fastly CD with great speed

Q9 the same as

give blood if you have just

a

a

10. A computer is usually chosen because of its simplicity of operation and ease of ~r~aintenance its capacity to store information.

12.

in the United States, New York

continue fanning, she may never have

CD

a

its body is encased in a protective shell of their own. O a

MODEL TEST 5

21. Excavations in a mound or village GD often reveal an ancient community that

a had been laying under &r reconstructions o a

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24. One of the world's best-selling authors,

a

Louis L' Amour said to have written 101

a

books, mostly westerns.

a

of the city.

25. No other quality is more important for a 22. One of the first and ultimately the most

c9

important purposeful of a reservoir was

a

to control flooding. 0 a 23. After seeing a movie based on a novel,

the book is read by many people

a the book made many people want to read it O many people want to read the book the reading of the book interests many people

a

a

a

scientist to acquire as to observe carefully.

a

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TOEFL MODEL TESTS

Section 3: Reading This section measures the ability to read and understand short passages similar in topic and style to those that students are likely to encounter in North American universities and colleges. This section contains reading passages and questions about the passages. There are several different types of questions in this section. In the Reading Section, you will first have the opportunity to read the passage. You will use the scroll bar to view the rest of the passage. When you h w e finished reading the passage, you will use the mouse to click on Proceed. Then the questions about the passage will be presented. You are to choose the one best answer to each question. Answer all questions about the information in a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage. Most of the questions will be multiple-choice questions. To answer these questions you will click on a choice below the question. To answer some questions, you will click on a word or phrase. To answer some questions, you will click on a sentence in the passage. To answer some questions, you will click on a square to add a sentence to the passage.

MODEL TEST 5 Perhaps it was his own lack of adequate schooling that inspired Horace Mann to work so

1. Which of the following titles would best express the main topic of the passage?

hard to accomplish the important reforms in

GD The Father of American Public

education that he advocated. While he was still a

Education CD Philosophy of Education O The Massachusetts State Board of Education C D Politics of Educational Institutions

boy, his father and older brother died, and he became responsible for supporting his family. Like most of the children in his town, he attended school only two or three months a year. Later, with

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the help of several teachers, he was able to study law and become a member of the Massachusetts bar, but he never forgot those early struggles. While sewing in the Massachusetts legislature, he signed an historic education bill that set up a state board of education. Without regret, he gave up his successful legal practice and politrcal career to become the first secretary of the board. There he exercised an enormous influence during the critical period of reconstruction that brought into existence the American graded

2. Why does the author mention Horace Mann's early life?

GD As an example of the importance of an early education for success

a To make the biography more complete O Because it served as the inspiration for his later work in education CD In tribute to the teachers who helped him succeed

elementary school as a substitute for the older district school system. Under his leaders,hip,the curr~culumwas restructured, the school year was

3. The word in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by

increased to a minimum of six months, and

GD valuable experiences

mandatory schooling was extended to age

CD happy situations (33 influential people CD difficult times

sixteen. Other important reforms that came into existence under Mann's guidance included the establishment of state normal schools for teacher training, institutes for inservice teacher education, and lyceums for adult education. He was also instrumental in improving salaries for teachers and creating school libraries. Mann's ideas about school reform were developed and distributed in the twelve annual reports to the state of Massachusetts that he wrote during his tenure as secretary of education. Considered quite radical at the time, the Massachusetts reforms later served as a model for the nation's educational system. Mann was formally recognized as the father of public education. During his lifetime, Horace Mann worked tirelessly to extend educational opportunities to agrarian families and the children of poor laborers. In one of his last speeches he summed up his philosophy of education and life: "Be ashamed to die until you have won some victory for humanity." Surely, his own life was an example of that philosophy.

Perhaps it was his own lack of adequate schooling that inspired Horace Mann to work so hard to accomplish the important reforms in education that he advocated. While he was still a boy, his father and older brother died, and he became responsible for supporting his family. Like most of the children in his town, he attended school only two or three months a year. Later, with the help of several teachers, he was able to study law and become a member of the Massachusetts bar, but he never forgot those early struggles. While serving in the Massachusetts legislature, he signed an historic education bill that set up a state board of education. Without regret, he gave up his successful legal practice and political career to become the first secretary of the board. There he exercised an enormous influence during the critical period of reconstructionthat brought into existence the American graded elementary school as a substitute for the older district school system. Under his leadership, the curriculum was restructured, the school year was increased to a minimum of six months, and mandatory schooling was extended to age

1

1

~

I

1

I 1

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TOEFL MODEL TESTS

4. The word ffEE refers to

the Massachusetts legislature (ID the state board of education O Mann's legal practice CD his political career Perhaps it was his own lack of adequate schooling that inspired Horace Mann to work so hard to accomplish the important reforms in education that he advocated. While he was still a boy, his'father and older brother died, and he became responsible for supporting his family. Like most of the children in his town, he attended school only two or three months a year. Later, with the help of several teachers, he was able to study law and become a member of the Massachusetts bar, but he never forgot those early struggles. While serving in the Massachusetts legislature, he signed an historic education bill that set up a state board of education. Without regret, he gave up his successful legal practice and polit~calcareer to become the first secretary of the board. fhere he exercised an enormous influence during the critical period of reconstruction that brought into existence the American graded elementary school as a substitute for the older district school system. Under his leadership, the curriculum was restructured, the school year was increased to a minimum of six months and

5. The word in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to GD required (ID equal excellent C D basic Perhaps it was his own lack of adequate schooling that inspired Horace Mann to work so hard to accomplish the important reforms in education that he advocated. While he was still a boy, his father and older brother died, and he became responsible for supporting his family. Like most of the children in his town, he attended school only two or three months a year. Later, with the help of several teachers, he was able to study law and become a member of the Massachusetts bar, but he never forgot those early struggles. While serving in the Massachusetts legislature, he signed an historic education bill that set up a state board of education. Without regret, he gave up his successful legal practice and political career to become the first secretary of the board. There he exercised an enormous influence during the critical period of reconstructionthat brought into existence the American graded elementary school as a substitute for the older district school system. Under his leadership, the curriculum was restructured, the school year was increased to a minimum of six months, and .... mandatory schooling was extended to age

6. Look at the word in the passage. Click on another word or phrase in the bold text that is closest in meaning to

F+TrmmB.

law and become a member of the Massachusetts bar, but he never forgot those early struggles. While sewing in the Massachusetts legislature, he signed an historic education bill that set up a state board of education. Without regret, he gave up his successful legal practice and political career to become the first secretary of the board. There he exercised an enormous influence during the critical period of reconstructionthat brought into existence the American graded elementary school as a substitute for the older district school system. Under his leadership, the curriculum was restructured, the school year was increased to a minimum of six months, and m to age mandatory schooling was e sixteen. Other important reforms that came into existence under Mann s guidance included the establishment of state normal schools for teacher training, institutes for inservice teacher education, and lyceums for adult education. He was also instrumental in improving salaries for teachers and creating school libraries. Mann s ideas about school reform were developed and distributed in the twelve annual

7. Click on the paragraph that explains how the educational reforms were distributed. Scroll the passage to see all of the paragraphs.

MODEL TEST 5

8. With which of the following statements would the author most probably agree?

Organic architecture-that

is, natural

architecture--may vary in concept and form,

a Horace Mann's influence on American

but ~tis always faithful to natural principles. The

education was very great. A small but important influence on American education was exerted by Horace Mann. @ Few educators fully understood Horace Mann's influence on American education. CD The influence on American education by Horace Mann was not accepted or appreciated.

architect dedicated to the promulgation of organic architecture rejects outright all rules imposed by ind~vidualpreference or mere aesthetics in order to remain true to the nature of the site, the materials, the purpose of the structure, and the people who will ultimately use it. If these natural principles are upheld, then a bank cannot be built to look like a Greek temple. Form does not follow function; rather, form and function are inseparably two aspects of the same phenomenon. In other words, a building should be inspired by nature's

9. Horace Mann advocated all of the following EXCEPT

forms and constructed with materials that retain and respect the natural characteristics of the setting to create harmony between the structure

a state board of education CD a district school system O classes for adults a graded elementary schools

and its natural environment. It should maximize people's contact with and utilization of the outdoors. Furthermore, the rule of functionalism is upheld; that is, the principle of excluding everything that serves no practical purpose.

10. The reforms that Horace Mann achieved

GD were not very radical for the time CD were used only by the state of Massachusetts O were later adopted by the nation as a model CD were enforced by the Massachusetts bar

Natural principles, then, are principles of design, not style, expressed by means and modes of construction that reflect unity, balance, proportion, rhythm, and scale. Like a sculptor, the organic arch~tectviews the site and materials as an innate form that develops organically from within. Truth in architecture results in a natural, spontaneous structure in total harmony with the setting. For the

I I . With which of the following statements would Horace Mann most probably agree?

a Think in new ways. CD Help others. O Study as much as possible. CD Work hard.

most part, these structures find their geometric shapes in the contours of the land and their colors in the surrounding palette of nature. From the outside, an organic structure is so much a part of nature that it is often obscured by it. In other words, it may not be easy, or maybe not even possible, for the human eye to separate the artificial structure from the natural terrain. Natural light, air, and view permeate the whole structure, providing a sense of communication with the outdoors. From the inside, living spaces open into one another. The number of walls for separate rooms is reduced to a minimum, allowing the functional spaces to flow together. Moreover, the interiors are sparse. Organic architecture incorporates built-in architectural features such as benches and storage areas to take the place of furniture.

369

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TOEFL MODEL TESTS

12. According to the passage, what is another name for organic architecture?

GD Natural architecture

a Aesthetic architecture O Principle architecture a Varied architecture 13. Look at the word lT in the passage. Click on the word or phrase in the bold text that W refers to.

Organic architectur-that is, natural architecture-may vary in concept and form, but it is always faithful to natural principles. The architect dedicated to the promulgation of organic architecture rejects outright all rules imposed by individual preference or mere aesthetics in order to remain true to the nature of the site, the materials, the purpose of the structure, and the people who will ultimately use it. If these natural principles are upheld, then a bank cannot be built to look like a Greek temple. Form does not follow function; rather, form and function are inseparably two aspects of the same phenomenon. In other words, a building should be inspired by nature's forms and constructed with materials that retain and respect the natural characteristics of the setting to create harmony between the structure and its natural environment. It should maximize people's contact with and utilization of the outdoors. Furthermore, the rule of functionalism is upheld; that is, the principle of excluding everything that serves no practical purpose. Natural principles, then, are principles of design, not style, expressed by means and modes

14. The word best be replaced by

in paragraph 1 could

fortunately eventually O supposedly C D obviously

Organic architecture-that is, natural architecture--may vary in concept and form, but it is always faithful to natural principles. The architect dedicated to the promulgation of organic architecture rejects outright all rules imposed by individual preference or mere aesthetics in order to remain true to the nature of the site, the materials, the purpose of the structure, and the people who willTiltiinamuse it. If these natural principles are upheld, then a bank cannot be built to look like a Greek temple. Form does not follow function; rather, form and function are inseparably two asoects of the same heno omen on. In other words,'a building should be inspired by nature's forms and constructed with materials that retain and respect the natural characteristicsof the setting to create harmony between the structure and its natural environment. It should maximize people's contact with and utilization of the outdoors. Furthermore, the rule of functionalism is upheld; that is, the principle of excluding everything that serves no practical purpose. Natural principles, then, are principles of design, not style, expressed by means and modes

MODEL TEST 5

15. The word in meaning to

in paragraph 1 is closest

371

16. The following examples are all representative of natural architecture EXCEPT

GD invalidated

Q3 a bank that is built to look like a Greek

CD disputed

temple a bank built so that the location is important to the structure O a bank that is built to conform to the colors of the natural surroundings C D a bank that is built to be functional rather than beautiful

O promoted @, perceived

Organic architecture--that is, natural architecturemay vary in concept and form, but it is always faithful to natural principles, The architect dedicated to the promulgationof organic architecture rejects outright all rules imposed by individual preference or mere aesthetics in order to remain true to the nature of the site, the materials, the purpose of the structure, and the people who will ultimately use it. If these natural principles are Clphela, then a bank cannot be built to look like a Greek temple. Form does not follow function; rather, form and function are inseparably two aspects of the same phenomenon. In other words, a building should be inspired by nature's forms and constructed with materials that retain and respect the natural characteristics of the setting to create harmony between the structure and its natural environment. It should maximize people's contact with and utilization of the outdoors. Furthermore, the rule of functionalism is upheld; that is, the principle of excluding everything that serves no practical purpose. Natural principles, then, are principles of design, not style, expressed by means and modes

17. Why does the author compare an organic architect to a sculptor?

GD To emphasize aesthetics CD To give an example of natural principles O To make a point about the development of geometry To demonstrate the importance of style 18. The word tTMTRRi in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to @ difficult to see CD in high demand not very attractive mutually beneficial

a

structure in total harmony w~ththe settlng. For the most part, these structures find their geometric shapes in the contours of the land and their colors in the surrounding palette of nature. From the outside, an organic structure is so much a part of nature that it is often obscu%d by it. In other words, it may not be easy, or maybe not even possible, for the human eye to separate the artificial structure from the natural terrain. Natural light, air, and view permeate the whole structure, providing a sense of communication with the outdoors. From the inside, living spaces open into one another. The number of walls for separate rooms is reduced to a minimum, allowing the functional spaces to flow together. Moreover, the interiors are sparse. Organic architecture incorporates built-in architectural features such as benches and storage areas to take the place of furniture.

1 I

I

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TOEFL MODEL TESTS

19. Look at the word t!Vli€o3iW in the passage. Click on another word or phrase in the bold text that is closest in meaning to E G n i .

architect views the site and materials as an innate form that develops organically from within. Truth in architecture results in a natural, spontaneous structure in total harmony with the setting. For the most part, these structures find their geometric shapes in the contours of the land and their colors i n the surrounding palette of nature. From the outside, an organic structure is so much a part of nature that it is often obscured by it. In other words, it may not be easy, or maybe not even possible, for the human eye to separate the artificial structure from the natural terrain. Natural light, air, and view permeate the whole structure, providing a sense of communication with the outdoors. From the inside, living spaces open into one another. The number of walls for separate rooms is reduced to a minimum, allowing the functional spaces to flow together. Moreover, the interiors are sparse. Organic architecture incorporates built-in architectural features such as benches and storage areas to take the place of furniture.

20. Click on the sentence in paragraph 3 that describes the furnishings appropriate for natural architecture. Paragraph 3 is marked with an arrow (+).

architect views the site and materials as an innate form that develops organically from within. Truth in architecture results in a natural, spontaneous structure in total harmony with the setting. For the most part, these structures find their geometric shapes in the contours of the land and their colors in the surrounding palette of nature. + From the outside, an organic structure is so much a part of nature that it is often obscured by it. In other words, it may not be easy, or maybe not even possible, for the human eye to separate the artificial structure from the natural terrain. Natural light, air, and view permeate the whole structure, providing a sense of communication with the outdoors. From the inside, living spaces open into one another. The number of walls for separate rooms is reduced to a minimum, allowing the functional spaces to flow together. Moreover, the interiors are sparse. Organic architecture incorporates built-in architectural features such as benches and storage areas to take the place of furniture.

21. With which of the following statements would the author most probably agree?

Form follows function. CD Function follows form. O Function is not important to form. a Form and function are one. 22. Which of the following statements best describes the architect's view of nature?

CD Nature should be conquered. GD Nature should not be considered. O Nature should be respected. a Nature should be improved.

MODEL TEST 5 Although its purpose and techniques were often magical, alchemy was, in many ways, the predecessor of the modern science of chemistry. The fundamental premise of alchemy derived from the best philosophical dogma and scientific practice of the time, and the majority of educated persons between 1400 and 1600 believed that alchemy had great merit. The earliest authentic works on European alchemy are those of the English monk Roger Bacon and the German philosopher St. Albertus Magnus. In their treatises they maintained that gold was the perfect metal and that inferior metals such as lead and mercury were removed by various degrees of imperfection from gold. They further asserted that these base metals could be transmuted to gold by blending them with a substance more perfect than gold. This elusive substance was referred to as the "philosopher's

373

23. Which of the following is the main point of the passage? There were both laboratory and literary alchemists. a Base metals can be transmuted to gold by blending them with a substance more perfect than gold. O Roger Bacon and St. Albertus Magnus wrote about alchemy. a Alchemy was the predecessor of modem chemistry. 24. The word aamemfe in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by

a valuable GD genuine O complete a comprehensible

stone." The process was called transmutation. Most of the early alchemists were artisans who were accustomed to keeping trade secrets and often resorted to cryptic terminology to record the progress of their work. The term sun was used for gold, moonfor silver, and the five known planets for base metals. This convention of substituting symbolic language attracted some mystical philosophers who compared the search for the perfect metal with the struggle of humankind for the perfection of the soul. The philosophers began to use the artisan's terms in the mystical literature that they produced. Thus, by the fourteenth century, alchemy had developed two distinct groups of practitioners-the

laboratory alchemist and the

literary alchemist. Both groups of alchemists continued to work throughout the history of alchemy, but, of course, it was the literary alchemist who was more likely to produce a written record; therefore, much of what is known about the science of alchemy is derived from philosophers rather than from the alchemists who labored in laboratories. Despite centuries of experimentation, laboratory alchemists failed to produce gold from other materials. However, they gained wide knowledge of chemical substances, discovered chemical properties, and invented many of the tools and techniques that are used by chemists today. Many laboratory alchemists earnestly devoted themselves to the scientific discovery of new compounds and reactions and, therefore, must be considered the legitimate forefathers of modem chemistry. They continued to call themselves alchemists, but they were becoming true chemists.

Although its purpose and techniques were often magical, alchemy was, in many ways, the predecessor of the modern science of chemistry. The fundamental premise of alchemy derived from the best philosophical dogma and scientific practice of the time, and the majority of educated persons between 1400 and 1600 believed that alchemy had great merit. works on European The earliest alchemy are those of the English monk Roger Bacon and the German philosopher St. Albertus Magnus. In their treatises they maintainedthat gold was the perfect metal and that inferior metals such as lead and mercury were removed by various degrees of imperfection from gold. They further asserted that these base metals could be transmuted to gold by blending them with a substance more perfect than gold. This elusive substance was referred to as the "philosopher's stone." The process was called transmutation. Most of the early alchemists were artisans who were accustomed to keeping trade secrets and often resorted to cryptic terminology to record the progress of their work. The term sun was used for

% m z

!

I

1 I

374

TOEFL MODEL TESTS

25. Look at the word l!fKPE in the passage. Click on the word or phrase in the bold text that ftTT?Erefers to.

I

Although its purpose and techniques were often magical, alchemy was, in many ways, the predecessor of the modern science of chemistry. The-fundamentalpremise of alchemy derived from the best philosophical dogma and scientific practice of the time, and the majority of educated persons between 1400 and 1600 believed that alchemy had great merit. The earliest authentic works on European alchemy are those of the English monk Roger Bacon and the German philosopher St. Albertus Magnus. In their treatises they maintained that gold was the perfect metal and that inferior metals such as lead and mercury were removed by various degrees of imperfection from gold. They further asserted that these base metals could be transmuted to gold by blending them with a substance more perfect than gold. This elusive substance was referred to as the "philosopher's stone." The process was called transmutation. Most of the earfy alchemists were artisans who were accustomed to keeping trade secrets and often resorted to crypt~cterminology to record the proqress of their work. The term sun was used for

26. According to the alchemists, what is the difference between base metals and gold?

CD Perfection C D Chemical content

O Temperature a Weight

27. Look at the word R!RRTTf in the passage. Click on the word or phrase in the bold text that is closest in meaning to aTeeB??T.

Although its purpose and techniques were often magical, alchemy was, in many ways, the predecessor of the modern science of chemistry. 'The fundamental premise of alchemy derived from the best philosophicaldogma and scientific practice of the time, and the majority of educated persons between 1400 and 1600 believed that alchemy had great merit. The earliest authentic works on European alchemy are those of the English monk Roger Bacon and the German philosopher St. Albertus Magnus. In their treatises they maintained that gold was the perfect metal and that inferior metals such as lead and mercury were removed by various degrees of imperfection from gold. They further 'asserted that these base metals could be transmuted to gold by blending them with a substance more perfect than gold. This elusive substance was referred to as the "philosopher's stone." The process was called transmutation. Most of the early alchemists were artisans who were accustomed to keeping trade secrets and often resorted to cryptic terminology to record the progress of their work. The term sun was used for

28. According to the passage, what is the "philosopher's stone"? GD CD O CD

Lead that was mixed with gold An element that was never found Another name for alchemy A base metal

MODEL TEST 5

29. The word in paragraph 3 could be replaced by which of the following? QD scholarly secret O foreign precise

further asserted that these base metals could be transmuted to gold by blending them with a substance more perfect than gold. Th~selusive substance was referred to as the "philosopher's stone." The process was called transmutation. Most of the early alchemists were artisans who were accustomed to keeping trade secrets and often resorted toc-WC terminology to record the progress of their work. The term sun was used for gold, moon for silver, and the five known planets for base metals. This convention of substituting symbolic language attracted some mystical philosophers who compared the search for the perfect metal with the struggle of humankind for the perfection of the soul. The philosophers began to use the artisan's terms in the mystical literature that they produced. Thus, by the fourteenth century, alchemy had developed two distinct groups of practitioners-the laboratory alchemist and the literary alchemist. Both groups of alchemists continued to work throughout the history of alchemy, but, of course, it was the literary alchemist who was more likely to produce a written record; therefore, much of what is known about the science

30. Why did the early alchemists use the terms sun and moon? GD To keep the work secret CD To make the work more literary O To attract philosophers a To produce a written record

3 1. Who were the first alchemists?

a Chemists a Writers O Artisans Linguists

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32. In paragraph 3, the author suggests that we know about the history of alchemy because GO the laboratory alchemists kept secret notes GD the literary alchemists recorded it in writing O the mystical philosophers were not able to hide the secrets of alchemy C D the historians were able to interpret the secret writings of the alchemists Paragraph 3 is marked with an arrow (-+).

further asserted that these base metals could be transmuted to gold by blending them with a substance more perfect than gold. This elusive substance was referred to as the "philosopher's stone." 'The process was called transmutation. +Most of the early alchemists were artisans who were accustomed to keeping trade secrets and often resorted to cryptic terminology to record the progress of their work. The term sun was used for gold, moon for silver, and the five known planets for base metals. This convention of substituting symbolic language attracted some mystical ~ h i l o s o ~ h ewho r s com~ared the search for the berfect 'metal with the struggle of humankind for the perfection of the soul. The ph~losophersbegan to use the artisan's terms in the mystical literature that they produced. Thus, by the fourteenth century, alchemy had developed two distinct groups of practitioners-the laboratory alchemist and the literary alchemist. Both groups of alchemists continued to work throughout the history of alchemy, but, of course, it was the literary alchemist who was more likely to produce a written record; therefore, much of what is known about the science

33. With which of the following statements would the author most probably agree? CD Alchemy must be considered a com-

plete failure.

CD Some very important scientific discoveries were made by alchemists. O Most educated people dismissed alchemy during the time that it was practiced. a The literary alchemists were more important than the laboratory alchemists.

376

TOEFL MODEL TESTS Human memory, formerly believed to be

rather inefficient, is really much more sophisticated than that of a computer. Researchers approaching the problem from a variety of points of view have all concluded that there is a great deal more stored in our minds than has been generally supposed.

34. Which of the following is the main topic of the passage? CD Wilder Penfield Neurosurgery O Human memory CD Chemical reactions

Dr. Wilder Penfield, a Canadian neurosurgeon, proved that by stimulating their brains electrically, he couPd elicit the total recall of complex events in his subjects' lives. Even dreams and other minor events Supposedly forgotten for many years suddenly emerged in detail. The memory trace is !he term for whatever forms the internal representation of the specific

35. The word rOnnTTy' in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by CD in the past a f r o ~ ntime to time O in general CD by chance

information about the event stored in the memory. Assumed to have been made by structural changes in the brain, the memory trace is not subject to direct observation but is rather a theoretical construct that IS used to speculate about how information presented at a particular time can cause performance at a later time. Most theories include the strength of the memory trace as a variable in the degree of learning, retention, and retrieval possible for a memory. One theory is that the fantastic capacity for storage in the brain is the result of an almost unlimited combination of interconnecttons between brain cells, stimulated by patterns of activity. Repeated references to the same information support recall. Or, to say that another way, improved performance is the result of strengthening the chemical bonds in the memory. Psychologists generally divide memory into at least two types, short-term and long-term memory, which combine to form working memory. Short-

Human memory, formerly believed to be rather inefficient, IS really much more sophisticated than that of a computer. Researchers approaching the problem from a variety of points of view have all concluded that there is a great deal more stored in our minds than has been generally supposed. Dr. Wilder Penfield, a Canadian neurosurgeon, proved that by stimulating their brains electrically, he could elicit the total recall of complex events in his subjects' lives. Even dreams and other minor events supposedly forgotten for many years suddenly emerged in detail. The memory trace is the term for whatever forms the internal representation of the specific information about the event stored in the memory. Assumed to have been made by structural changes in the brain, the memory trace is not subject to direct observation but is rather a theoretical construct that is used to speculate about how information presented at a particular time can cause performance at a later time. Most theories include the strength of the memory trace as a variable in the degree of learning, retention, and retrieval possible for a memory. One theory is

term memory contains what we are actively focusing on at any particular time, but items are not retained longer than twenty or thirty seconds without verbal rehearsal. We use short-term memory when we look up a telephone number and repeat it to ourselves until we can place the call. On the other hand, long-term memory can store facts, concepts, and experiences after we stop thinking about them.'All conscious processing of information, as in problem solving for example, involves both short-term and longterm memory. As we repeat, rehearse, and recycle information, the memory trace is strengthened, allowing that information to move from short-term memory to long-term memory.

36. Compared with a computer, human memory is CD more complex a more limited O less dependable CD less durable

MODEL TEST 5

37. Look at the word SmXKc'am in the passage. Click on the word in the bold text that is closest in meaning to s S p h i 5 m .

377

39. How did Penfield stimulate dreams and other minor events from the past? @ By surgery

0By electrical stimulation Human memory, formerly believed to be rather inefficient, is really much more sophisticated than that of a computer. Researchers approaching the problem from a variety of points of view have all concluded that there is a great deal more stored in our minds than has been generally supposed. Dr. Wilder Penfield, a Canadian neurosurgeon, proved that by stimulating their brains electrically, he could elicit the total recall of complex events in his subjects' lives. Even dreams and other minor events supposedly forgotten for many years suddenly emerged in detail. The memory trace is the term for whatever forms the internal representationof the specific information about the event stored in the memory. Assumed to have been made by structural changes in the brain, the memory trace is not subject to direct observation but is rather a theoretical construct that is used to speculate about how information presented at a particular time can cause performance at a later time. Most theories include the strength of the memory trace as a var~ablein the degree of learning, retention, and retrieval possible for a memory. One theory is

-

38. Look at the word f?ZZ in the passage. Click on the word or phrase in the bold text that fli8 refers to.

Human memory, formerly believed to be rather inefficient, is really much more sophisticated than that of a computer. Researchers approaching the problem from a variety of points of view have all concluded that there is a great deal more stored in our minds than has been generally supposed. Dr. Wilder Penfield, a Canadian neurosurgeon, proved that by stimulat~ngtheir brains electrically, he could elicit the total recall of complex events in his sublects' lives. Even dreams and other minor events supposedly forgotten for many years suddenly emerged in detail. The memory trace is the term for whatever forms the internal representation of the specific information about the event stored in the memory. Assumed to have been made by structural changes in the brain, the memory trace is not subject to direct observation but is rather a theoretical construct that is used to speculate about how information presented at a particular time can cause performance at a later time. Most theories include the strength of the memory trace as a variable in the degree of learning, retention, and retrieval possible for a memory. One theory is

O By repetition By chemical stimulation

40. According to the passage, the capacity for storage in the brain can be understood by examining the physiology of the brain CD is stimulated by patterns of activity O has a limited combination of relationships a is not influenced by repetition QD

41. The word b6ElE in paragraph 2 means promises GD agreements O connections CD responsibilities QD

,

.

forms the internal representation of the specific information about the event stored in the memory. Assumed to have been made by structural changes in the brain, the memory trace is not subject to direct observation but is rather a theoretical construct that is used to speculate about how information presented at a particular time can cause performance at a later time. Most theories include the strength of the memory trace as a variable in the degree of learning, retention, and retrieval possible for a memory. One theory is that the fantastic capacity for storage in the brain is the result of an almost unlimited combination of interconnections between brain cells, stimulated by patterns of activity. Repeated references to the same information support recall. Or, to say that another way, improved performance is the result of strengthening the chemical bonds in the memory Psychologists generally divide memory into at least two types, short-term and long-term memory, which combine to form working memory. Shortterm memory contains what we are actively focusing on at any particular time, but items are not retained longer than twenty or thirty seconds

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TOEFL MODEL TESTS

42. Click on the sentence in paragraph 3 that defines working memory.

44. All of the following are true of a memory trace EXCEPT that

Paragraph 3 is marked with an arrow (*).

CD it is probably made by structural

interconnections between brain cells, stimulated by patterns of activity. Repeated references to the same information support recall. Or, to say that anothercway, improved performance is the result of strengthening the chemical bonds in the memory. -+ Psycholog~stsgenerally divide memory into at least twb types, short-term and long-term memory, which combine to form working memory. Shortterm memory contains what we are actively focusing on at any particular time, but items are not retained longer than twenty or thirty seconds without verbal rehearsal. We use short-term memory when we look up a telephone number and repeat ~tto ourselves until we can place the call. On the other hand, long-term memory can store facts, concepts, and experiences after we stop thinking about them. All conscious processing of informatron, as in problem solving for example, involves both short-term and longterm memory. As we repeat, rehearse, and recycle informat~on,the memory trace is strengthened, allowing that information to move from short-term memory to long-term memory.

changes in the brain OD it is able to be observed directly by investigators O it is a theoretical construct that we use to form hypotheses CD it is related to the degree of recall supported by repetition

45. With which of the following statements would the author most likely agree? The mind has a much greater capacity for memory than was previously believed. OD The physical basis for memory is clear. O Different points of view are valuable. CD Human memory is inefficient.

43. Why does the author mention loolung up a telephone number?

a It is an example of short-term memory. @ It is an example of a weak memory trace. O It is an example of an experiment. CD It is an example of how we move shortterm memory to long-term memory.

To check your answers for Model Test 5, refer to the Answer Key on page 492. For an explanation of the answers, refer to the Explanatory Answers for Model Test 5 on pages 58 1-599.

MODEL TEST 5

379

Writing Section: Model Test 5 When you take a Model Test, you should use one sheet of paper, both sides. Time each Model Test carefully. After you have read the topic, you should spend 30 minutes writing. For results that would be closest to the actual testing situation, it is recommended that an English teacher score your test, using the guidelines on page 244 of this book.

Some people believe that it is very important to make large amounts of money, while others are satisfied to earn a comfortable living. Analyze each viewpoint and take a stand. Give specific reasons for your position. Notes

To check your essay, refer to the Checklist on page 492. For an Example Essay, refer to the Explanatory Answers for Model Test 5 on pages 599-600.

380

TOEFL MODEL TESTS

Model Test 6 Computer-Assisted TOEFL

Section 1: Listening The Listening Section of the test measures the ability to understand conversations and talks in English. You wi,ll use headphones to listen to the conversations and talks. While you are listening, pictures of the speakers or other information will be presented on your computer screen. There are two parts to the Listening Section, with special directions for each part. On the day of the test, the amount of time you will have to answer all of the questions will appear on the computer screen. The time you spend listening to the test material will not be counted. The listening material and questions about it will be presented only one time. You will not be allowed to take notes or have any paper at your computer. You will both see and hear the questions before the answer choices appear. You can take as much time as you need to select an answer; however, it will be to your advantage to answer the questions as quickly as possible. You may change your answer as many times as you want before you confirm it. After you have confirmed an answer, you will not be able to return to the question. Before you begin working on the Listening Section, you will have an opportunity to adjust the volume of the sound. You may not be able to change the volume after you have started the test.

QUESTION DIRECTIONS - Part A In Part A of the Listening Section, you will hear short conversations between two people. In some of the conversations, each person speaks only once. In other conversations, one or both of the people speak more than once. Each conversation is followed by one question about it. Each question in this part has four answer choices. You should click on the best answer to each question. Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers.

1. What does the woman mean?

3. What does the woman say about Ali?

GD She does not know how to play tennis.

@ He is studying only at the American

CD She has to study. O She does not like the man. CD She does not qualify to play.

Language Institute. He is taking three classes at the university. O He is a part-time student. a He is surprised.

2. What does the woman mean?

CD She has no attendance policy. CD The attendance policy is not the same for undergraduates and graduate students. O The grade will be affected by absences. CD This class is not for graduate students.

4. What does the woman mean?

She will help the man. CD She is not Miss Evans. O Dr. Warren has already gone. C D The man should wait for Dr. Warren to answer the call. C D

CD Board the bus

6. What does the woman mean? @ She will go to the bookstore.

CD The books were too expensive. O There weren't any math and English books left. She does not need any books.

view. O He is too tired to talk about it. a He can hear the woman very well.

12. What does the woman imply? @ Mike does not have a car. Mike's brother is taking a break. O Mike is in Florida. CID Mike is visiting his brother.

a

7. What does the woman suggest the man do?

C B Take a different route GD Leave earlier than planned O Wait until seven to leave GD Stay at home

13. What does the woman advise the man to do?

@ Get a job Finish the assignment O Begin his project GD Pay his bills

8. What does the woman mean? @ The class with the graduate assistant is

very enjoyable. CD The students make a log of errors in the class. O The graduate assistant ridicules his students. 0She is sorry that she took the class with the graduate assistant.

9. What does the man mean? GD He did not mean to insult the woman. a What he said to Susan was true. O The woman does not have an accent. a Susan did not report the conversation accurately.

14. What does the woman mean?

GD She is not sure about going. CD She does not want to go to the show. O She wants to know why the man asked her. a She would like to go with the man.

15. What had the woman assumed about Bill and Carol? @ They would not get married. CD They were still away on their honeymoon. O They didn't go on a honeymoon. They had not planned a large wedding.

16. What does the woman mean? 10. What does the woman agree to do for the man?

GD Tell him the time CD Take care of his bag O Help him find his books CD Go with him

GD She has already reviewed for the test. a The test is important to her. O The review session will not be helpful. a The man does not understand her. 17. What will the man probably do?

CD Telephone his sponsor CD Collect his check O Help the woman to look for his check

a Ask the woman to look again

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TOEFL MODEL TESTS

QUESTION DIRECTIONS - Part B In Part B of the Listening Section, you will hear several longer conversations and talks. Each conversation or talk is followed by several questions. The conversations, talks, and questions will not be repeated. The conversations and talks are about a variety of topics. You do not need special knowledge of the topics to answer the questions correctly. Rather, you should answer each question on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in the conversations or talks. For most of the questions, you will need to click on the best of four possible answers. Some questions will have special directions. The special directions will appear in a box on the computer screen.

18. What is Gary's problem? OD CD O CD

He is sick with the flu. He is in the hospital. He has missed some quizzes. He is behind in lab.

19. What does Gary want Margaret to do? Go to lab for him CD Let him copy her notes O Help him study a Be his lab partner

20. What does Margaret offer to do?

a Meet with him to clarify her notes CD Make a copy of the quizzes for him O Read his notes before the next lab C D Show him how to do the lab experiments .

21. What is Margaret's attitude in this conversation?

Helpful Worried Apologetic Friendly

23. Why wasn't Fitzgerald more successful in his later life?

He had little natural talent. He was a compulsive drinker. The film versions of his books were not successful. He did not adjust to a changing world. 24. According to the lecturer, what do we know about the novels written by F. Scott Fi tzgerald?

GD They described the Jazz Age. CD They described the Deep South. O They were based upon war experiences. CD They were written in stream-ofconsciousness style. 25. What does the professor want the class to do after the lecture?

GD Write a book report

CD Read one of Fitzgerald's books O Watch and discuss a video CD Research Fitzgerald's life

26. What is the main purpose of the talk?

GD To explain chamber music

CD To give examples of composers 22. What is the main topic of this lecture? @ Novelists of this century

CD F. Scott Fitzgerald's work O First novels by young authors CID Film versions of F. Scott Fitzgerald's novels

O To congratulate the University Quartet CD To introduce madrigal singing

27. What is the origin of the term chamber music?

GD A medieval musical instrument CD An old word that means small group O A place where the music was played CD A name of one of the musicians who created it

o'clock on Wednesday Piano Brass Strings Percussion

29. Why does the speaker mention Johann Sebastian Bach? He was a famous composer. CD He composed the pieces that will be performed. O He wrote vocal chamber music. CD He wrote trio sonatas.

30. What will the listeners hear next? C B A discussion of music from the eigh-

teenth century

a A concert by the University Quartet O 4 n introduction to religious music CD A history of music from the Elizabethan Period

3 1. Why did the man go to the Chemical Engineering Department? GO To make an appointment C!D To cancel his appointment O To change his appointment time CD To rearrange his schedule so that he could keep his appointment

32. What does the woman say about Dr. Benjamin? 0 He is busy on Wednesday.

CD He will not be in on Wednesday. O He does not schedule appointments on Wednesday. CD He will be moving his Wednesday appointment to Thursday this week.

CD Give him an appointment at either fourthirty on Wednesday or ten o'clock on Thursday O Give him an appointment at lunch time CD Give him a new appointment earlier on the same day as his original appointment 34. What did the man decide to do?

GD Make a new appointment later CD Cancel his regular appointment O Rearrange his schedule to keep his original appointment C D Call back later when Dr. Benjamin is in 35. What is the main topic of this lecture?

CD Health food CD The processing of bread O Organic gardens CID Poisons 36. Which term is used to identify foods that have not been processed or canned? Refined foods Natural foods O Organic foods a Unprocessed foods

37. What happens to food when it is processed'?

Some toxic chemicals may be added. The food is cooked. Vitamins are added to the food. The vitamin content is reduced.

38. Which word best describes the speaker's attitude toward health foods? Uninformed CD Convinced O Uncertain Humorous

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TOEFL MODEL TESTS

39. How did the professor define the Stone Age?

44. What is a trap?

The time when the first agricultural communities were established GD The time when the glaciers from the last Ice Age receded O The time when prehistoric humans began to make tools h e time when metals were introduced as material for tools and weapons

@ A man-made storage area for oil C D Gas and water that collect near oil deposits O An underground formation that stops the flow of oil CD Cracks and holes that allow the oil to move

45. Select the diagram of the anticline trap that was described in the lecture.

40. According to the lecturer, which two occupations describe the Neanderthals? Farmers CD Hunters O Gatherers G I Artisans

4 1. Identify the three time periods associated with the Stone Age. T E C Rdn a pnfi%FTTen c l i B on thc empty box in the correct row. Use each phrase only once.

'

appearance of hom*o sapiens establishment of agricultural villages use of tools

42. Why did tools change during the Late Stone Age? They began to be used for domestic purposes. They were not strong enough for the cold weather. O They were adapted as farm tools. CD They were more complex as humans became more creative. 43. What marked the end of the Stone Age? O The introduction of farming CID The preference for metal tools O The decline of Neanderthals CD The onset of the Ice Age

El

I I

MODEL TEST 6

46. Identify the nonporous rock in the diagram.

CT~CK m rnZIFRK

385

48. What is the woman's problem?

a She does not want to take the course. CD She does not know which professor to choose. O She does not understand the course requirements. CD She does not want to take the man's advice.

49. What do Dr. Perkins and Dr. Robinson have in common? CD They teach two different sections of the

47. According to the speaker, how can geologists locate salt domes?

GD They look for a bulge in an otherwise flat area. C D They look for an underground rock formation shaped like an arch. O They look for salt on the surface of the area. CD They look for a large crack in the Earth.

same class. C D They both use traditional teaching methods. O They have been teaching for a long time. C D They are not considered very good teachers.

50. Why did the woman decide to take the class with Dr. Robinson?

She has already taken classes with Dr. Robinson. She prefers to take lecture classes. She wants to take the class with the man. She likes a more traditional approach to teaching.

TOEFL MODEL TESTS

386

Section 2: Structure This section measures the ability to recognize language that is appropriate for standard written English. There are two types of questions in this section. In the first type of question, there are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence, there are four words or phrases. You will choose the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence. Clicking on a choice darkens the oval. After you click on Next and Confirm Answer, the next question will be presented. The second type of question has four underlined words or phrases. You will choose the one underlined word or phase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct. Clicking on an underlined word or phrase will darken it. After you click on Next and Confirm Answer, the next question will be presented.

1. When fnends insist on expensive gifts, it makes most Americans uncomfortable. GD them to accept their accepting O they accepting they accept

that is GD that O and is that it is

2. Gilbert Stuart is considered by most art critics greatest portrait painter in the North American colonies.

a that he was as he was O who was the the

product of either heredity or environment proved, but several theories

have been proposed.

a

4. A child in the first grade tends to be all of the other children in the class.

GD the same old to

O as old like

CD the same age as

a

a

a

a the same age than

a

House in Chicago and began her work in

was awarded the Nobel Prize for peace.

3. The extent to which an individual is a

a

6. Jane Addams had already established Hull

the Women's Suffrage Movement when she

C D

=not

5 . The bird's egg is such an efficient structure for protecting the embryo inside difficult for the hatchling to break.

7. The flag of the original first colonies may or

a

may not have been mad-e by Betsy Ross

a

during the Revolution.

a

8. As a safety measure, the detonator for a nuclear device may be made of , each of which is controlled by a different employee. two equipments C D two pieces of equipments

O two pieces of equipment

a two equipment pieces

GD twice more than a twice as much as O as much twice as C D as much as twice

In 1607 that it was

a That in 1607 O Because in 1607 CD It was in 1607

10. The most common form of treatment & is

m

aD

mass inoculation and chlorination of water sources.

a

11. An equilateral triangle is a triangle and three angles of equal size. that have three sides of equal length CD it has three sides equally long O that has three sides of equal length a having three equal length sides in it

12.

are found on the surface of the

17. Unlike most Europeans, many Americans a bowl of cereal for breakfast every day.

GD used to eating a are used to eat O are used to eating C D use to eat 18. Scientists had previously estimated that the CD

Grand Canyon in Arizona

ten million

a

years old, but now, by using; a more modem 0 dating method, they agree that the age is

moon. GD Craters and waterless seas that When craters and waterless seas O Craters and waterless seas CD Since craters and waterless seas 13. Without alphabetical order, dictionaries

m

would

14.

impossibility to use.

a

a

a

two waves pass a given point simultaneously, they will have no effect on each other's subsequent motion.

a

Canada and the eastern United States, should be avoided because their skin

a

secretions are lethal to small animals and irritating to humans.

a

19. Although jogging is a good way to lose

m

weight and improve one's physical condition, most doctors recommend that the CD potential jogger begin in a correct manner O by getting a complete checkup.

a

a

Pickerel Frog, native to southern

a

a

20. Some conifers, that is, tree that have cones, GD a O are able to thrive on poor, thin soil.

GD So that a They are O That a If 15.

closer to six million vears.

21. Fast-food restaurants have become popular because many working people want

a to eat quickly and cheaply C D eating quickly and cheaply

O eat quickly and cheaply the eat quickly and cheaply

a

388

TOEFL MODEL TESTS

22. Airports must be located near to major a @ population centers for the advantage of

24.

Itimperative that a graduate student

a

maintains a grade point average of "B" in

a

GI air transportation to be retained.

a

a

23. On an untimed test, to answer accurately is . mor,e important than

a a quick finish CD 'to finish quickly finishing quickly CD you finish quickly

his major field.

a

25. Dairying .Jconcerned not only &h the a @ production of milk, but with the manufac-

0 ture of milk products such as butter and

a cheese.

Section 3: Reading This section measures the ability to read and understand short passages similar in topic and style to those that students are likely to encounter in North American universities and colleges. This section contains reading passages and questions about the passages. There are several different types of questions in this section. In the Reading Section, you will first have the opportunity to read the passage. You will use the scroll bar to view the rest of the passage.

When you have finished reading the passage, you will use the mouse to click on Proceed. Then the questions about the passage will be presented. You are to choose the one best answer to each question. Answer all questions about the infomation in a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage. Most of the questions will be multiple-choice questions. To answer these questions you will click on a choice below the question. To answer some questions, you will click on a word or phrase. To answer some questions, you will click on a sentence in the passage. To answer some questions, you will click on a square to add a sentence to the passage.

390

TOEFL MODEL TESTS

1. Which of the following is the main topic of

A geyser is the result of underground water

the passage?

under the combined conditions of high temperatures and increased pressure beneath the surface of the

GD The Old Faithful geyser in Yellowstone National Park @ The nature of geysers O The ratio of temperature to pressure in underground water CD Regions of geologically recent volcanic activity

Earth. Since temperature rises about 1°F for every sixty feet under the Earth's surface, and pressure increases with depth, water that seeps down in cracks and fissures until it reaches very hot rocks in the Earth's interior becomes heated to a temperature of approximately 290°F. Water under pressure can remain liquid at temperatures above its normal boiling point, but in

2. In order for a geyser to erupt.

a geyser, the weight of the water nearer the

hot rocks must rise to the surface of the Earth GD water must flow underground O it must be a warm day CD the earth must not be rugged or broken

surface exerts so much pressure on the deeper water that the water at the bottom of the geyser reaches much higher temperatures than does the water at the top of the geyser. As the deep water becomes hotter, and consequently lighter, it suddenly rises to the surface and shoots out of the

3. Look at the word m r n a ~ f inl the passage. Click on another word or phrase in the bold text that is closest in meaning to

surface in the form of steam and hot water. In turn, the explosion agitates all the water in the geyser reservoir, creating further explosions.

m x i m .

Immediately afterward, the water again flows into the underground reservoir, heating begins, and the process repeats itself. In order to function, then, a geyser must have a source of heat, a reservoir where water can be stored until the temperature rises to an unstable point, an opening through wh~chthe hot water and steam can escape, and underground channels for resupplying water after an eruption. Favorable conditions for geysers exist in regions of geologically recent volcanic activity, especially in areas of more than average precipitation. For the most part, geysers are located in three regions of the world: New Zealand, Iceland, and the Yellowstone National Park area of the United States. The most famous geyser in the world is Old Faithful in Yellowstone Park. Old Faithful erupts every hour, rising to a height of 125 to 170 feet and expelling more than ten thousand gallons during each eruption. Old Faithful earned its name because, unlike most geysers, it has never failed to erupt on schedule even once in eighty years of observation.

1

A geyser is the result of underground water under the combined conditions of high temperatures and increased pressure beneath the surface of the Earth. Since temperature rises about 1°F for every sixty feet under the Earth's surface, and pressure increases with depth, water that seeps down i n cracks and fissures until it reaches very hot racks in the Earth's interior becomes heated t o a temperature of appro'ximately 290°F. Water under pressure can remain liquid at temperatures above its normal boiling point, but in a geyser, the weight of the water nearer the surface exerts so much pressure on the deeper water that the water at the bottom of the geyser reaches much higher temperatures than does the water at the top of the geyser. As the deep water becomes hotter, and consequently lighter, it suddenly rises to the surface and shoots out of the surface in the form of steam and hot water. In turn, the explosion agitates all the water in the geyser reservoir, creating further explosions. Immediately afterward, the water again flows into the underground reservoir, heating begins, and the process repeats itself.

A

4. The word

¶!

in paragraph 1 refers to

GD water C D depth 0pressure CD surface

A geyser is the result of underground water under the combined conditions of high temperatures and increased pressure beneath the surface of the Earth. Since temperature rises about 1°F for every sixty feet under the Earth's surface, and pressure increases with depth, water that seeps down in cracks and fissures until it reaches very hot rocks in the Earth's interior becomes heated to a temperature of approximately 290°F. Water under pressure can remain liquid at temperatures above its normal boiling point, but in a geyser, the weight of the water nearer the surface exerts so much pressure on the deeper water that the water at the bottom of the geyser reaches much higher temperatures than does the water at the top of the geyser. As the deep water becomes hotter, and consequently lighter, it suddenly rises to the surface and shoots out of the surface in the form of steam and hot water. In turn, the explosion agitates all the water in the geyser reservoir, creating further explosions. Immediately afterward, the water again flows into the underground reservoir, heating begins, and the process repeats itself.

5. Click on the paragraph that explains the role of water pressure in an active geyser. Scroll the passage to see all of the paragraphs.

6. As depth increases @ pressure increases but temperature does

not CD temperature increases but pressure does not O both pressure and temperature increase CD neither pressure nor temperature increases 7. Why does the author mention New Zealand and Iceland in paragraph 4? @ To compare areas of high volcanic

activity CD To describe the Yellowstone National Park O To provide examples of areas where geysers are located a To name the two regions where all geysers are found Paragraph 4 is marked with an arrow (-+).

Immediately afterward, the water again flows into the underground reservoir, heattng begins, and the process repeats itself. In order to function, then, a geyser must have a source of heat, a reservoir where water can be stored until the temperature rises to an unstable point, an opening through which the hot water and steam can escape, and underground channels for resupplying water after an eruption. -+ Favorable conditions for geysers exist in regions of geologically recent volcanic activity, especially in areas of more than average precipitation. For the most part, geysers are located in three regions of the world: New Zealand, Iceland, and the Yellowstone National Park area of the United States. The most famous geyser in the world is Old Faithful in Yellowstone Park. Old Faithful erupts every hour, rising to a height of 125 to 170 feet and expelling more than ten thousand gallons during each eruption. Old Faithful earned its name because, unlike most geysers, it has never failed to erupt on schedule even once in eighty years of observation.

392

TOEFL MODEL TESTS

8. How often does Old Faithful erupt? GD GD O CD

Every Every Every Every

10 minutes 60 minutes 125 minutes 170 minutes

mi

9. The word in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to GD heating CD discharging O supplying CD wasting

10. What does the author mean by the statement

OldPa"lfifiTeamEfifi~n~mTbr~ca~e, unlike most geysers, it has never failedT6 erupt on schedule even once in eishty pea?< of observation ? GD Old Faithful always erupts on schedule. GD Old Faithful is usually predictable. O Old Faithful erupts predictably like other geysers. CD Old Faithful received its name because it has been observed for many years. 11. According to the passage, what is required

for a geyser to function? Immediately afterward, the water again flows into the underground reservoir, heating begins, and the process repeats itself. In order to function, then, a geyser must have a source of heat, a reservoir where water can be stored until the temperature rises to an unstable point, an opening through which the hot water and steam can escape, and underground channels for resupplying water after an eruption. Favorable conditions for geysers exist in regions of geologically recent volcanic activity, especially in areas of more than average precipitation. For the most part, geysers are located in three regions of the world: New Zealand, Iceland, and the Yellowstone National Park area of the United States. The most famous geyser in the world is Old Faithful in Yellowstone Park. Old Faithful erupts every hour, rising to a height of 125 to 170 feet and eFp61li"ngmore than ten thousand gallons during each eruption. Old Faithful earned its name because, unlike most geysers, it has never failed to erupt on schedule even once in eighty years of observation.

CD A source of heat, a place for water to collect, an opening, and underground channels CD An active volcano nearby and a water reservoir O Channels in the Earth and heavy rainfall CD Volcanic activity, underground channels, and steam

MODEL TEST 6 This question has often been posed: Why were the Wright brothers able to succeed in an

(

effort at which so many others had failed? Many explanations have been mentioned, but three reasons are most often cited. First, they were a

(

team. Both men worked congenially and cooperatively, read the same books, located and shared information, talked incessantly about the

(

possibility of manned flight, and sewed as a cons~stentsource of inspiration and encouragement to each other. Quite simply, two geniuses are

(

better than one. Both were glider pilots. Unlike some other engineers who experimented with the theories of

1 flight, Owille and Wilbur Wright experienced the

practical aspects of aerodynamics by building and

1

flying in kites and gliders. Each craft they built was slightly superior to the last, as they incorporated knowledge that they had gained from previous

I

1

12. Which of the following is the main topic of the passage? The reasons why the Wright brothers succeeded in manned flight GD The advantage of the internal combustion engine in the Wright brothers' experiments O The Wright brothers' experience as pilots CD The importance of gliders to the development of airplanes 13. The word FffB in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to which of the following?

a disregarded mentioned O considered CD proven

failures. They had realized from their experiments that the most serious challenge in manned flight would be stabilizing and maneuvering the aircraft once it was airborne. While others concentrated their efforts on the problem of achievilig lift for take-off, the Wright brothers were focusing on developing a three-axis control for guiding their

I aircraft. By the time that the brothers started to

build an airplane, they were already among the world's best glider pilots; they knew the problems of riding the air first hand. In addition, the Wright brothers had designed more effective wings for the airplane than had been previously engineered. Using a wind tunnel, they tested more than two hundred different wing designs, recording the effects of slight variations in shape on the pressure of air on the wings. The data from these experiments allowed the Wright brothers to construct a superior wing for their arrcraft. In spite of these advantages, however, the Wright brothers might not have succeeded had they not been born at precisely the opportune moment in history. Attempts to achieve manned flight in the early nineteenth century were doomed because the steam engines that powered the aircrafts were too heavy in proportion to the power that they produced. But by the end of the nineteenth century, when the brothers were experimenting with engineering options, a relatively light internal combustion engine had already been invented, and they were able to bring the ratio of weight to power within acceptable limits for flight.

393

This question has often been posed: Why were the Wright brothers able to succeed in an effort at which so many others had failed? Many explanations have been mentioned, but three reasons are most often cited. First, they were a team. Both men worked congenially and cooperatively, read the same books, located and shared information, talked incessantly about the possibility of manned flight, and served as a consistent source of inspiration and encouragement to each other. Quite simply, two geniuses are better than one. Both were glider pilots. Unlike some other engineers who experimented with the theories of flight, Orville and Wilbur Wright experienced the practical aspects of aerodynamics by building and flying in kites and gliders. Each craft they built was slightly superior to the last, as they incorporated knowledge that they had gained from previous failures. They had realized from their experiments that the most serious challenge in manned flight would be stabilizing and maneuvering the aircraft once it was airborne. While others concentrated their efforts on the problem of achieving lift for

394

TOEFL MODEL TESTS

14. The word m ? y in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by which of the following?

confidently CD intelligently O constantly CCD optimistically

This question has often been posed: Why were the Wright brothers able to succeed in an effort at which so many others had failed? Many explanations have been mentioned, but three reasons are most often cited. First, they were a team. Both men worked congenially and cooperatively, read the same books, located and shared information, talked incessani about the possibility of manned flight, and sewed as a consistent source of inspiration and encouragement to each other. Quite simply, two geniuses are better than one. Both were glider pilots. Unlike some other engineers who experimented w~ththe theories of flight, Orville and Wilbur Wright experienced the practical aspects of aerodynamics by building and flying in kites and gliders. Each crafi they built was slightly superior to the last, as they incorporated knowledge that they had gained from previous failures. They had realized from their experiments that the most serious challenge in manned flight would be stabilizing and maneuvering the aircraft once it was airborne. While others concentrated their efforts on the problem of achieving lift for

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parents C D children

O couples C D families The nuclear family, consisting of a mother, father, and their children, may be more an American ideal than an American reality. Of course, the socalled traditional American family was always more varied than we had been led to believe, reflecting the very different racial, ethnic, class, and religious customs among different American groups, but today diversity is even more obvious. The most recent government census statistics reveal that only about one third of all current American families f~tsthe traditional mold of two parents and their children, and another third consists of married couples who either have no children or have ndm still living at home. An analysis of the remaining one third of the population reveals that about 20 percent of the total number of American households are single people, the most common descriptor being women over sixty-five years of age. A small percentage, about 3 percent of the total, consists of unmarried people who choose to live together; and the rest, about 7 percent, are single parents, with at least one child. There are several easily identifiable reasons

16. How many single people were identified in the survey?

GD One third of the total surveyed C D One fourth of the total surveyed O One fifth of the total surveyed

CD Less than one tenth of the total surveyed

17. Who generally constitutes a one-person household?

GD A single man in his twenties CD An elderly man O A single woman in her late sixties C D A divorced woman

18. Look at the phrase t!fFRT in the passage. Click on the word or phrase in the bold text that l!RFiFR refers to.

The most recent government census statistics reveal that only about one third of all current American families fits the traditional mold oi two parents and their children, and another third consists of married couples who either have no children or have none still living at home. An analysis of the remaining one third of the population reveals that about 20 percent of the total number of American households are single people, the most common descriptor being women over sixty-five years of age. A small percentage, about 3 percent of the total, consists of unmarried people who choose to live together; and the rest, about 7 percent, are single parents, with at least one child. There are several easily identifiable reasons for the growing number of single-parent households. First, the sociological phenomenon of single-parent households reflects changes in cultural attitudes toward divorce and also toward unmarried mothers.A substantial number of adults become single parents as a result of divorce. In addition, the number of children born to unmarried women who choose to keep their

MODEL TEST 7

19. Click on the sentence in paragraph 4 that refers to the way that most Americans feel about close friends. Paragraph 4 is marked with an arrow (+).

20. The word in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to

GD does not appreciate C D does not know about

O does not include C D does not understand unmarried women who choose to keep their children and rear them by themselves has increased dramatically. Finally, there is a small percentage of single-parent families that have resulted from untimely death. Today, these varied family types are typical and, therefore, normal. ---*In addition, because many families live far from relatives, close friends have become a more important part of family life than ever before. The vast majority of Americans claim that they have people in their lives whom they regard as family although they are not related. A view of family that only accepts the traditional nuclear arrangement not only ignores the reality of modern American family life, but also undervalues the familial bonds created in alternative family arrangements. Apparently, many Americans are achiev~ng supportive relationships in family forms other than the traditional one.

unmarried women who choose to keep their children and rear them by themselves has increased dramatically. Finally, there is a small percentage of single-parent families that have resulted from untimely death. Today, these varied family types are typical and, therefore, normal. In addition, because many families live far from relatives, close friends have become a more important part of family life than ever before. The vast majority of Americans claim that they have people in their lives whom they regard as family although they are not related. A view of family that only accepts the traditional nuclear arrangement not only ignores the reality of modem American family life, but also Tndekilu&5 the familial bonds created in alternative family arrangements. Apparently, many Americans are achieving supportive relationships in family forms other than the traditional one.

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420

TOEFL MODEL TESTS

The passage discusses all of the following reasons for an increase in single-parent households EXCEPT CD a rising divorce rate G3 death of one of the parents O increased interest in parenting by fathers CD babies born to single women

Although noise, commonly defined as unwanted sound, is a widely recognized form of pollution, it is very difficult to measure because the discomfort experienced by different individuals is highly subjective and, therefore, variable. Exposure to lower levels of noise may be slightly irritating, whereas exposure to higher levels may actually cause hearing loss. Particularly in congested urban areas, the noise produced as a byproduct of our

22. With which of the following statements would the author most probably agree? There have always been a wide variety of family arrangements in the United States. C D Racial, ethnic, and religious groups have preserved the traditional family structure. O The ideal American family is the best structure. C D Fewer married couples are having children.

advancing technology causes physical and psychological harm but it also detracts from the quality of life for those exposed to it. Unlike the eyes, which can be covered by the eyelids against strong light, the ear has no lid, and is, therefore, always open and vulnerable; noise penetrates without protection. Noise causes effects that the hearer cannot control and to which the body never becomes accustomed. Loud noises instinctively signal danger to any organism with a hearing mechanism, including human beings. In response, heartbeat and respiration accelerate, blood vessels constrict, the skin pales, and muscles tense. In fact, there is a general increase in functioning brought about by the flow of adrenaline released in response to fear, and some of these responses persist even longer than the noise, occasionally as long as thirty minutes after the sound has ceased. Because noise is unavoidable in a complex, industrial society, we are constantly responding in the same ways that we would respond to danger Recently, researchers have concluded that noise and our response may be much more than an annoyance. It may be a serious threat to physical and psychological health and well-being, causing damage not only to the ear and brain but also to the heart and stomach. We have long known that hearing loss is America's number one nonfatal health problem, but now we are learning that some of us with heart disease and ulcers may be victims of noise as well. Fetuses exposed to noise tend to be overactive, they cry easily, and they are more sensitive to gastrointestinal problems afler birth. In addition, the psychologtcal effect of noise is very important. Nervousness, irritability, tension, and anxiety increase, affecting the quality of rest during sleep, and the efficiency of activities during waking hours, as well as the way that we interact with one another.

MODEL TEST 7

23. Which of the following is the author's main point?

Noise may pose a serious threat to our physical and psychological health. CD Loud noises signal danger. O Hearing loss is America's number one nonfatal health problem. a The ear is not like the eye.

27. According to the passage, people respond to loud noises in the same way that they respond to GD CD O CD

annoyance danger damage disease

28. Look at the word -Z in the passage. Click on the word or phrase in the bold text that is closest in meaning to Eele7:ltc .

24. According to the passage, what is noise?

GD Unwanted sound CD A byproduct of technology O Physical and psychological harm a Congestion 25. Why is noise difficult to measure?

GD It causes hearing loss. CD All people do not respond to it in the same way. O It is unwanted. CD People become accustomed to it. 26. The word i3T@WB in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by GD hazardous CD polluted O crowded C D rushed

r - - 1 l t h o u g h noise, commonly defined as unwanted sound, is a widely recognized form of pollution, it is very difficult to measure because the discomfort experienced by different individuals is highly subjective and, therefore, variable. Exposure to lower levels of noise may be slightly irritating, whereas exposure to higher levels may actually cause hearing loss. Particularly in Sdngested urban areas, the noise produced as a byproduct of our advancing technology causes physical and psychological harm but it also detracts from the quality of life for those exposed to it. Unlike the eyes, which can be covered by the eyelids against strong light, the ear has no lid, and is, therefore, always open and vulnerable; noise penetrates without protection. Noise causes effects that the hearer cannot control and to which the body never becomes accustomed. Loud noises instinctively signal danger to any organism with a hearing mechanism, including human beings. In response, heartbeat and respiration accelerate, blood vessels constrict, the skin pales, and muscles tense. In fact, there is a general increase in functioning brought about by

421

A

eyelids against strong light, the ear has no Ild, and is, therefore, always open and vulnerable; noise penetrates without protection. Noise causes effects that the hearer cannot control and to which the body never becomes accustomed. Loud noises instinctively signal danger to any organism with a hearing mechanism, including human beings. In response, heartbeat and respiration'accelerate: blood vessels constrict, the skin pales, and muscles tense. In fact, there i s a general 'increase i n functioning brought about by the flow of adrenaline released in response t o fear, and some of these responses p r s i s t even longer than the noise, occasionally as long as thirty minutes after the sound has ceased. Because noise is unavoidable in a complex, industrial society, we are constantly responding in the same ways that we would respond to danger. Recently, researchers have concluded that noise and our response may be much more than an annoyance. It may be a serious threat to physical and psychological health and well-being, causing damage not only to the ear and brain but also to the heart and stomach. We have long known that

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422

TOEFL MODEL TESTS

29. Look at the word fT in the passage. Click on the word or phrase in the bold text that K refers to.

Although noise, commonly defined as unwanted sound, is a widely recognized form of pollution, it is very difficult to measure because the discomfort experienced by different individuals is highly subjective and, therefore, variable. Exposure to lower levels of noise may be slightly irritating, whereas exposure to higher levels may actually cause hearing loss. Particularly i n congested urban areas, the noise produced as a byproduct of our advancing technology causes physical and psychological harm but it also detracts from the quality of life for those exposed t o it. Unlike the eyes, which can be covered by the eyelids against strong light, the ear has no lid, and is, therefore, always open and vulnerable; noise penetrates without protection. Noise causes effects that the hearer cannot control and to which the body never becomes accustomed. Loud noises instinctively signal danger to any organism with a hearing mechanism, including human beings. In response, heartbeat and respiration accelerate, blood vessels constrict, the skin pales, and muscles tense. In fact, there is a general increase in functioning brought about by

3 1. It can be inferred from this passage that the eye GO responds to fear @ enjoys greater protection than the ear O increases functions C D is damaged by noise

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32. With which of the following statements would the author most probably agree?

GD Noise is not a serious problem today. .'

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30. The phrase RFV'Bl' in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to which of the following?

GD Noise is America's number-one problem. O Noise is an unavoidable problem in an industrial society. C D Noise is a complex problem. 33. The following sentence can be added to the passage.

Investigations on human subjects have demonstrated that babies are affected by noise even before they are born. Where would it best fit in the passage?

CD after all

Click on the square (m)to add the sentence to the passage.

GD also

Scroll the passage to see all of the choices.

O instead C D regardless

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B e c a ~ noise e is unavoid~blein a complex. industrial society, we are constantly responding in the same ways that we would respond to danger. Recently, researchers have concluded that noise and our response may be much more than an annoyance. It may be a serious threat to physical and psychological health and well-being, causing damage not only to the ear and brain but also to the heart and stomach. We have long known that hearing loss is America's number one nonfatal health problem, but now we are learning that some of us with heart disease and ulcers may be vict~msof noise XsAweK:Fetuses exposed to noise tend to be overactive, they cry easily, and they are more sensitwe to gastrointestinal problems after birth. In addition, the psychological effect of noise is very important. Nervousness, irritability, tension, and anxiety increase, affecting the quality of rest during sleep, and the efficiency of activities during waking hours, as well as the way that we interact with one another.

3

Because noise is unavoidable in a complex, industr~alsoclety, we are constantly responding in the same ways that we would respond to danger. Recently, researchers have concluded that noise and our response may be much more than an annoyance.. It may be a serious threat to physical and psychological health and well-being, causing damage not only to the ear and brain but also to the heart and stomach. We have long known that hearing loss is America's number one nonfatal health problem, but now we are learning that some of us with heart disease and ulcers may be victims of noise as well.. Fetuses exposed to noise tend to be overactive, they cry easily, and they are more sensitive to aastrointestinal problems after birth.. In addition,-the psychologi&l effect of noise is very important. Nervousness, irritability, tension, of rest and anxiety increase, affecting the during sleep, and the efficiency of activities during waking hours, as well as the way that we interact with one another.

MODEL TEST 7 Very few people in the modern world obtain their food supply by hunting and gathering in the natural environment surrounding their homes. This method of harvesting from nature's provision, however, is not only the oldest known subsistence strategy, but also the one that has been practiced

423

34. Which of the following is the main topic of the passage? GD The Paleolithic Period CD Subsistence farming O Hunter-gatherers a Marginal environments

continuously in some parts of the world for at least the last two million years. It was, indeed, the only way to obtain food until rudimentary farming and very crude methods for the domestication of animals were introduced about 10,000 years ago. Because hunter-gatherers have fared poorly in comparison with their agricultural cousins, their numbers have dwindled, and they have been forced to live in the marginal wastelands. In higher latitudes, the shorter growing season has restricted the availability of plant life. Such conditions have caused a greater dependence on hunting and, along the coasts and waterways, on fishing. The abundance of vegetation in the lower latitudes of

35. Which is the oldest subsistence strategy?

GD Migrating CD Domesticating animals O Farming CD Hunting and gathering 36. When was hunting and gathering introduced?

GD Ten million years ago CD TWOmillion years ago O Ten thousand years ago a Two thousand years ago

the tropics, on the other hand, has provided a greater opportunity for gathering a variety of plants. In short, the environmental differences have restricted the diet and have limited possibilities for the development of subsistence societies.

37. Look at the word in the passage. Click on the word or phrase in the bold text that is closest in meaning to

EdrnW.

Contemporary hunter-gatherers may help us understand our prehistoric ancestors. We know from observation of modern hunter-gatherers in both Africa and Alaska that a society based on hunting and gathering must be very mobile. Following the food supply can be a way of life. If a particular kind of wild herding animal is the basis of the food for a group of people, those people must move to stay within reach of those animals. For many of the native people of the great central plains of North America, following the buffalo, who were in turn following the growth of grazing foods, determined their way of life. For gathering societies, seasonal changes mean a great deal. While the entire community camps in a central location, a smaller party harvests the food within a reasonable distance from the camp. When the food in the area is exhausted, the community moves on to exploit another site. We also notice a seasonal migration pattern evolving for most hunter-gatherers, along with a strict division of labor between the sexes. These patterns of behavior may be similar to those practiced by humankind during the Paleolithic Period.

Very few people in the modern world obtain their food supply by hunting and gathering in the natural environment surrounding their homes. This method of harvesting from nature's provision, however, i s not only the oldest known subsistence strategy, but also the one that has been practiced continuously in some parts of the world for at least the last two million years. It was, indeed, the only way to obtain food until rudimentary farming and very crude methods for the domestication of animals were introduced about 10,000 years ago. Because hunter-gatherers have fared poorly in comparison with their agricultural cousins, their numbers have dwindled, and they have been forced to live in the marginal wastelands. In higher latitudes, the shorter growing season has restricted the availability of plant life. Such conditions have caused a greater dependence on hunting and, along the coasts and waterways, on fishing. The abundance of vegetation in the lower latitudes of the tropics, on the other hand, has provided a greater opportunity for gathering a variety of plants. In short, the environmental differences have restricted the diet and have limited possibilities for

424

TOEFL MODEL TESTS

38. The word PtwfridreET in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to El disagreed a decreased Q disappeared CD died

40. In paragraph 2, the author explains that hunters and gatherers in lower latitudes found El CD O CD

more animals to hunt more coasts and waterways for fishing a shorter growing season a large variety of plant life

Paragraph 2 is marked with an arrow (A). way to obtaln food until rudimentary farming and very crude methods for the domestication of animals were introduced about 10,000 years ago. Because hunter-gatherers have fared poorly in comparison with their agricultural cousins, their numbers have fwindfed, and they have been forced to live in the marginal wastelands. In higher latitudes, the shorter growing season has restricted the availability of plant life. Such conditions have caused a greater dependence on hunting and, along the coasts and waterways, on fishing. The abundance of vegetation in the lower latitudes of the tropics, on the other hand, has provided a greater opportunity for gathering a variety of plants. In short, the environmental differences have restricted the diet and have limited possibilities for the develo~mentof subsistence societies. ~ o n t e k ~ o r ahunter-gatherers ry may help us understand our orehistoric ancestors. We know from observation of modern hunter-gatherers in both Africa and Alaska that a society based on hunting and gathering must be very mobile. Following the food supply can be a way of life. If a particular kind of wild herding animal is the basis

39. Look at the phrase T7RfI contliRBR in the passage. Click on the word or phrase in the bold text that Sucli conditions refers to.

way to obtain food until rudimentary farming and very crude methods for the domestication of animals were introduced about 10,000 years ago. Because hunter-gatherers have fared poorly in comparison with their agricultural cousins, their numbers have dwindled, and they have been forced to live in the marginal wastelands. In higher latitudes, the shorter growing season has restricted the availability of plant life. Such condhions have caused a greater dependence on hunting and, along the coasts and waterways, on fishing.The abundance of vegetation in the lower latitudes of the tropics, on the other hand, has provided a greater opportunity for gathering a variety of plants. In short, the environmental differences have restricted the diet and have limited possibilities for the development of subsistence societies. Contemporary hunter-gatherers may help us understand our prehistoric ancestors. We know from observation of modern hunter-gatherers in both Africa and Alaska that a society based on hunting and gathering must be very mobile. Following the food supply can be a way of life. If a particular kind of wild herding animal is the basis

continuously In some parts of the world for at least the last two million years. It was, indeed, the only way to obtain food until rudimentary farming and very crude methods for the domestication of animals were introduced about 10,000 years ago. -+ Because hunter-gatherers have fared poorly in comparison with their agricultural cousins, their numbers have dwindled, and they have been forced to live in the marginal wastelands. In higher latitudes, the shorter growing season has restricted the availability of plant life. Such conditions have caused a greater dependence on hunting and, along the coasts and waterways, on fishing. The abundance of vegetation in the lower latitudes of the trooics. on the other hand.. has .orovided a greatel opbortunity for gathering a variety of plants. In short, the environmental differences have restricted the diet and have limited possibilities for the development of subsistence societies. Contemporary hunter-gatherers may help us understand our prehistoric ancestors. We know from observation of modern hunter-gatherers in both Africa and Alaska that a society based on hunting and gathering must be very mobile.

MODEL TEST 7

41. Why does the author mention contemporary hunter-gatherers in paragraph 3?

42. The word €?TfTZif in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to

CD Their seasonal migration patterns are important. C D Studying them gives us insights into the lifestyle of prehistoric people. O There are very few examples of modern hunter-gatherer societies. C D Their societies are quite different from those of their ancestors.

CD use a find O take a prepare

particular kind of wild herding animal is the basis of the food for a group of people, those people must move to stay within reach of those animals. For many of the native people of the great central plains of North America, following the buffalo, who were in turn following the growth of grazing foods, determined their way of life. For gathering societies, seasonal changes mean a great deal. While the entire community camps in a central location, a smaller party harvests the food within a reasonable distance from the camp. When the food in the area is exhausted, the community moves on to exploR another site. We also notice a seasonal migration pattern evolving for most hunter-gatherers,along with a strict division of labor between the sexes. These patterns of behavior may be similar to those practiced by humankind during the Paleolithic Period.

Paragraph 3 is marked with an arrow (4).

the tropics, on the other hand, has provided a greater opportunity for gathering a variety of plants. In short, the environmental differences have restricted the diet and have limited possibilities for the development of subsistence societies. --+ Contemporary hunter-gatherers may help us understand our prehistoric ancestors. We know from observation of modern hunter-gatherers in both Africa and Alaska that a society based on hunting and gathering must be very mobile. Following the food supply can be a way of life. If a particular kind of wild herding animal is the basis of the food for a group of people, those people must move to stay within reach of those animals. For many of the native people of the great central plains of North America, following the buffalo, who were in turn following the growth of grazing foods, determined their way of life. For gathering societies, seasonal changes mean a great deal. While the entire community camps in a central location, a smaller party harvests the food within a reasonable distance from the camp. When the food in the area is exhausted, the community moves on to exploit

425

43. What does the author mean by the statement '

central location :r party bar\ c\tS the food within ,I ~ r a h o ~ ~ adistance ble from the camp ? CD Everyone is involved in hunting and gathering the food for the community. CD When the food has been harvested, the community has a celebration. O A small group hunts and gathers food near the camp. CD The reason that the community harvests the food is that it is near the camp.

426

TOEFL MODEL TESTS

44. All of the patterns of behavior for huntergatherers are mentioned in the passage EXCEPT GD a small group plants food near the camp. CD the group moves when the food supply is low. O men and women each have specific toles. CD the seasons dictate the movement of the group.

45. Which of the following sentences should NOT be included in a summary of the passage?

GD Hunter-gatherers are mobile, tending to migrate seasonally. a Hunter-gatherers share different responsibilities between the sexes. O Hunter-gatherers camp in a central location. a Hunter-gatherers have many social celebrations.

To check your answers for Model Test 7, refer to the Answer Key on page 494. For an explanation of the answers, refer to the Explanatory Answers for Model Test 7 on pages 62 1-640.

MODEL TEST 7

427

Writing Section: Model Test 7 When you take a Model Test, you should use one sheet of paper, both sides. Time each Model Test carefully. After you have read the topic, you should spend 30 minutes writing. For results that would be closest to the actual testing situation, it is recommended that an English teacher score your test, using the guidelines on page 244 of this book.

Leaders like John F. Kennedy and Martin Luther &ng have made important contributions to humanity. Name another world leader you think is important. Give specific reasons for your choice. Notes

To check your essay, refer to the Checklist on page 494. For an Example Essay, refer to the Explanatory Answers for Model Test 8 on page 640.

428

TOEFL MODEL TESTS

Model Test 8

Computer-Assisted TOEFL

Section 1: Listening The Listening Section of the test measures the ability to understand conversations and talks in English. You will use headphones to listen to the conversations and talks. While you are listening, pictures of the speakers or other information will be presented on your computer screen. There are two parts to the Listening Section, with special directions for each part. On the day of the test, the amount of time you will have to answer all of the questions will appear on the computer screen. The time you spend listening to the test material will not be counted. The listening material and questions about it will be presented only one time. You will not be allowed to take notes or have any paper at your computer. You will both see and hear the questions before the answer choices appear. You can take as much time as you need to select an answer; however, it will be to your advantage to answer the questions as quickly as possible. You may change your answer as many times as you want before you confirm it. After you have confirmed an answer, you will not be able to return to the question. Before you begin working on the Listening Section, you will have an opportunity to adjust the volume of the sound. You may not be able to change the volume after you have started the test.

QUESTION DIRECTIONS - Part A In Part A of the Listening Section, you will hear short conversations between two people. In some of the conversations, each person speaks only once. In other conversations, one or both of the people speak more than once. Each conversation is followed by one question about it. Each question in this part has four answer choices. You should click on the best answer to each question. Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers.

1. What can be inferred about the woman?

GD She is not his advisor. GD She is not polite. O She does not have a course request form. GD She will help the man. 2. What does the man mean?

a He is lost. CD He needs a different course. O He will not withdraw from the class. QD

He doesn't know what he will do.

3. What can be inferred about the man? CD He did not go to Dr. Peterson's class

today. GD The man is a student in the class that the

woman teaches. O The man works in the same office as the woman. a The man is a teaching assistant for Dr. Peterson.

4. What will the man and woman probably do? GD Get the man some glasses CD Sit together O Move to the front of the room

Have an argument

GD He liked Montreal in the winter. GD He liked Montreal spring, summer, and fall. O He liked Montreal all year round. CD He did not like Montreal.

OD She already has an ID card. GD She does not need her picture taken. O She is ready to leave. a She does not know where to go.

13. What does the woman suggest?

6. What does the man mean? CD He will place a wager. GD He will pay later for his purchases. O He will do more than the required

assignments. He will go to his job.

a The man should invite his friends to dinner. CD The man's friends should come to his house. O The man could take a plant to his friends. CD The man likes candy.

7. What did the woman suggest? Use will power a Chew gum O Wear a nicotine patch a Join a support group

14. What will the woman probably do? CD CD O CD

Go with the man Look on the other side of the hall Get a different room Return to the front desk

8. What does the man mean?

a The class is too long. GD The class is too small. O He does not like the subject.

a He does not want to say.

15. What does the woman imply? The application was lost.

a The process takes about three weeks. O The response is probably in the mail.

The man should be patient.

9. What does the man mean? CD GD O CD

He is asking where to go. He is telling the woman to leave. He is calling the woman a liar. He is congratulating the woman.

10. What does the woman mean? CQ Her roommate got the assistantship. GD She is not going to take a full load. O Teaching is more difficult than studying.

a The man is correct. 11. What is the woman's problem? Her back pack is too heavy. CD She is not a very good student. O She cannot find her notebook. CD She needs a ride home from class.

16. What does the woman mean? She wants to use her passport for ID. GD She does not have a driver's license.

O She prefers to pay with a credit card.

a She does not have any checks. 17. What does the man mean? CD He was polite to the committee. GD The meeting went very well. O Additional members are needed for the

committee.

a The committee did not meet.

TOEFL MODEL TESTS

430

QUESTION DIRECTIONS - Part B In Part B of the Listening Section, you will hear several longer conversations and talks. Each conversation or talk is followed by several questions. The conversations, talks, and questions will not be repeated. The conversations and talks are about a variety of topics. You do not need special knowledge of the topics to answer the questions correctly. Rather, you should answer each question on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in the conversations or talks. For most of the questions, you will need to click on the best of four possible answers. Some questions will have special directions. The special directions will appear in a box on the computer screen. 18. Why is the student in the dean's office?

24. How does the man respond to her problem?

GD Because he failed a class

GD He is not interested.

Because he needs some advice O Because he was caught plagiarizing Because he stole a book

He gives her advice. O He shares his plans. a He just listens without comment.

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19. What is the student's excuse?

25. What does the man plan to do?

6D He says he didn't understand. GD He says someone else did it. O He says he is sony. CD He says he needs a tutor.

GD Go to a large graduate institution CD Continue his friendship with the woman O Finish his degree at another school CD Schedule job interviews

20. How does the dean punish the student? By expelling him By giving him a faili ng grade in the course O By warning him CD By sending him to the Learning Resources Center What advice does the dean give the student? 6D To come back to her office GD To get a tutor to help him O To use his own ideas next time CD To go to another university

%

26. What is the topic of this lecture?

GD The role of fine arts in civilization GD A definition of culture in anthropology O Customs of American society

a The study of complex societies 27. According to the speaker, what do most people mean when they use the word culture in ordinary conversation?

Customs for a particular society a Ethnic groups that share common experiences O Values that are characteristic of society CD Familiarity with the arts

22. What is the woman trying to decide?

GD Whether to go to graduate school GD If she wants to transfer or not O Which job to accept a What to do about her grades

23. What does she like about the college she is attending? GD The prestige of a large school C D The friends she has made

O The attitude of the teachers a The opportunities for employment

28. According to the speaker, what do anthropologists mean when they say a thought or activity is to be included as part of culture? CD It must be considered appropriate by small groups within society. GD It must be acquired by visiting museums, galleries, and theaters. O It must be commonly shared by a group. CD It must be comprised of many diverse ethnic groups.

MODEL TEST 8

29. How does the professor explain American culture? GD Practices that are common to all Ameri-

cans of diverse ethnicity CD The combination of diverse ethnic practices by different groups in America O Diverse ethnic practices that are recognized but not practiced by all Americans a Practices that the majority of Americans participate in

33. Why are women so susceptible to the AIDS virus?

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30. According to the speaker, what is a subculture?

a A museum or a gallery CD An informal culture O A smaller group within the entire

society a The behaviors, beliefs, attitudes, and values of the majority society 31. How does the World Health Organization estimate compare with actual trends?

The estimate is very accurate compared with the actual numbers. CD The estimate appears to be lower than the actual numbers. O The estimate was much too high compared with the actual numbers. a The estimate accounted for about twothirds of the actual numbers. 32. The guest speaker briefly discusses a trend. Summarize the trend by putting the events in order.

CfFEfi a-~efitence:Tencrux on me" space where it belongs. m e each sentence only on=

rn [g

Heterosexual contact accounted for most new infections. Many children were born with HIV. Rates of exposure and infection of women rose. The majority of AIDS victims were hom*osexual men.

431

More women today tend to have multiple partners than they did in the past. Some cultures do not encourage the use of protection. Women are biologically more at risk for all sexually transmitted diseases. Traditionally, women have not been the partner responsible for protection.

34. W.~ichsegments of the population will probably constitute the majority of AIDS cases in the twenty-first century?

fl

rn

Children Teens Women Men

35. What causes jet lag? GD Adjustment to a longer or shorter day GD Air travel from west to east

O Different foods and drinks while

traveling

a Lack of sleep during air travel 36. Who would suffer most from jet lag? CQ A young person

A person traveling west O A person who has a regular routine

a A person who does not travel often 37. How can jet lag be minimized?

Eat a large meal on the plane Drink lots of water on the plane Arrive at your destination early in the evening Try not to sleep very much during the flight

432

TOEFL MODEL TESTS

38. How long does it take to adjust to a new time zone?

GD One half day for every time zone GD Twenty-four hours after arrival O One day for every time zone C D Three days after arrival 39. What is Elderhostel? A college program taught by retired ,professors C D A summer program for senior citizens O An educational program for older adult students @> A travel program that includes inexpensive dormitory accommodations CD

40. Which of the statements is true of Elderhostel?

The courses are offered for credit. There are no final exams. Anyone may participate. College faculty teach the classes. 4-1. Which of the people in the picture would most probably be enrolled in an Elderhostel program?

42. What should you do if you are interested in finding out more about Elderhostel?

GD Write the national office CD Call your local college O Listen to the radio station a Attend an Elderhostel meeting 43. What problem does the lecturer point out?

GD Pyrite looks like gold and is often mistaken for it. CD Pyrite is very flammable and can easily burst into flames. O Pyrite is difficult to find in most parts of the world. a Pyrite does not have an easily identifiable crystal formation. 44. What will the professor do with the specimen he has brought to class?

GD He will return it to the museum. CD He will keep it in his office. O He will use it for an experiment. He will put it in the mineral lab. 45. Select the specimen that is most similar to the one that the professor showed in class.

It is brittle. It is flammable. It is rare. 47. What is an easy way to identify pyrite? GD Heat the specimen 0 Put acid on the sample O Look for green and brown streaks a Smell the mineral

48. What prompted this conversation? GD The man is studying for a test. C D The man is looking for the Student

Union. O The man has lost a book. CD

The man wants to meet the woman.

O In the cafeteria CD At the.libra~-y

50. What does the woman suggest that the man do?

a

Go to the Student Union immediately Study for his test Come back to see her tomorrow Check the lost and found tomorrow

434

TOEFL MODEL TESTS

Section 2: Structure This section measures the ability to recognize language that is appropriate for standard written English. There are two types of questions in this section. In the first type of question, there are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence, there are four words or phrases. You will choose the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence. Clicking on a choice darkens the oval. After you click on Next and Confirm Answer, the next question will be presented. The second type of question has four underlined words or phrases. You will choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct. Clicking on an underlined word or phrase will darken it. After you click on Next and Confirm Answer, the next question will be presented.

1. The consistency of protoplasm and that of glue

is known as the ecliptic

@ they are alike

a known as the ecliptic

are similar to O are similar the same

O it is known to be ecliptic

a knowing as the ecliptic

2. The decomposition of microscopic arljm& Q3

at the bottom of the sea results in m

w

an accumulation of the oil. 0

6. The yearly path of the sun around the heavens

a

to the brain at a 3. Nerve impulses speed of about one hundred yards per second.

a sending sensations a to send sensations O send sensations

a sensations 4. A calorie .Jthe quantity of heat required Q3 a 0 to rise one gallon of water one degree -C D

centrigrade at one atmospheric pressure.

5. The Supreme Court does not hear a case , except those involving unless foreign ambassadors. a trial

a already tried O it already trying C D it has already been tried

7. Before Alexander Fleming discovered penicillin, many people died

a infected with simple bacteria CD from simple bacterial infections O infections were simple bacteria CD infecting of simple bacteria

8. Wholly the plow is being d i s p l a d

a by new techniaues that protect the land and 0 promise more abundant crops.

a 9. Although exact statistics vary because of political changes, separate nation states are included in the official lists at any one time. GD more than two hundred CD as much as two hundred O many as two hundred C D most that two hundred

MODEL TEST 8

10. Studies of job satisfaction are unreliable because there & so many variables and @

CD

because the admission of dissatisfaction 0 may be viewed as a personal failure.

a 11.

owe much of their success as a group to their unusual powers of migration.

a That birds CD A bird O The bird a Birds algebra. CQ

16. Both liquids and gases flow freely from a container because they have CQ

not definite shape

GD none definite shape O nothing definite shape CD no definite shape

17. A dolphin a longer nose.

a porpoise in that it has

different a differs O different than CCD differs from

18. Scientific fish farming, known as

unknown quantities is the task of

12.

435

To found

a aquaculture, has existed for more than 4000 CD years, but scientists who make research in O

CD Find O The find

this field are only recently providing the

Finding kind of information that growers need 13. New synthetic materials

improved

a

to increase production.

the construction of artificial body parts @3 0 by provide both the power and the range of

a

action for a natural limb.

a 19. That most natural time units are not simple multiples of each other in constructing a calendar. it is a primary problem CD is a primary problem O a primary problem is OD a primary problem CQ

14. If England had not imposed a tax on tea GD a over two hundred and twenty years s o , will

a a

the United States have remained part of the British Commonwealth?

15. Research in the work place reveals that people work for many reasons

20. The native people in the Americas were referred to as Indians because, GD according to the believe at the time, CD

a

GD money beside

a money besides O beside money CD besides money

a

Christopher Columbus had reached the the East Indies.

436

TOEFL MODEL TESTS

2 1. Only after food has been dried or canned O that it should be stored for later

consumption GD should be stored for later consumption O should it be stored for later consumption a it should be stored for later consumption

24.

, Carl Sandburg is also well known for his multivolume biography of Lincoln.

An eminent American poet GD He is an eminent American poet

An eminent American poet who is CD Despite an eminent American poet 25. The CBT will test your ability to understand

a

22. Aging in most animals can be readily CD a modified when they will limit caloric intake.

a a

spoken English, to read nontechnical

a language, and writing correctly.. 0

23. Although we are concerned about the

a problem of energy sources, we must not fail

a

r e c o ~ n i z hthe need for environmental

a protection.

a

a

MODEL TEST 8

437

Section 3: Reading This section measures the ability to read and understand short passages similar in topic and style to those that students are likely to encounter in North American universities and colleges. This section contains reading passages and questions about the passages. There are several different types of questions in this section. In the Reading Section, you will first have the opportunity to read the passage. You will use the scroll bar to view the rest of the passage. When you have finished reading the passage, you will use the mouse to click on Proceed. Then the questions about the passage will be presented. You are to choose the one best answer to each question. Answer all questions about the information in a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage. Most of the questions will be multiple-choice questions. To answer these questions you will click on a choice below the question.

TCIanswer some questions, you will click on a word or phrase. To answer some questions, you will click on a sentence in the passage. To answer some questions, you will click on a square to add a sentence to the passage.

438

TOEFL MODEL TESTS Seismologists have devised two scales of

measurement to enable them to describe and record information about earthquakes in

1. Which of the following is the main topic of the passage?

measurement is the Richter scale, a numerical

GD Earthquakes GD The Richter scale O Charles F. Richter

logarithmic scale developed and introduced by

a Seismography

quantitative terms. The most widely known

American, seismologist Charles R. Richter in 1935. The purpose of the scale is to measure the amplitude of the largest trace recorded by a standard seismograph one hundred kilometers from the Bpicenter of an earthquake. Tables have been formulated to demonstrate the magnitude of any earthquake from any seismograph. For example, a one-unit increase in magnitude translates into an increase of times thirty in released energy. To put that another way, each number on the Richter scale represents an earthquake ten times as strong as one of the next lower magnitude. Specifically, an earthquake of magnitude 6 is ten times as strong as an earthquake of magnitude 5.

2. According to information in the passage, what does the Richter scale record?

CD The distance from the epicenter GD The amplitude of the largest trace O The degree of damage a The location of the epicenter 3. The word !R3REiT in paragraph 1 could be replaced by

CD reliable G3 complex O conventional a abandoned

On the Richter scale. earthquakes of 6.75 are considered great and 7.0 to 7.75 are considered major. An earthquake that reads 4 to 5.5 would be expected to have caused localized damage, and those of magnitude 2 may be felt. The other earthquake-assessment scale, introduced by the Italian seismologist Giuseppe Mercalli, measures the intensity of shaking, using gradations from 1 to 12. Because the effects of such shaking dissipate with distance from the epicenter of the earthquake, the Mercalli rating depends on the site of the measurement. Earthquakes of Mercalll 2 or 3 are basically the same as those of Richter 3 or 4; measurements of 11 or 12 on the Mercalli scale can be roughly

correlated with magnitudes of 8 or 9 on the Richter scale. In either case, the relative power or energy released by the earthquake can be understood, and the population waits to hear how bad the earthquake that just passed really was.

Seismologists have devised two scales of measurenlent to enable them to describe and record information about earthquakes in quantitative terms. The most widely known measurement is the Richter scale, a numerical logarithmic scale developed and introduced by American seismologist Charles R. Richter in 1935. The purpose of the scale is to measure the amplitude of the largest trace recorded by a Tanaard seismograph one hundred kilometers from the epicenter of an earthquake. Tables have been formulated to demonstrate the magnitude of any earthquake from any seismograph. For example, a one-unit increase in magnitude translates into an increase of times thirty in released energy. To put that another way, each number on the Richter scale represents an earthquake ten times as strong as one of the next lower magnitude. Specifically, an earthquake of magnitude 6 is ten times as strong as an earthquake of magnitude 5. On the Richter scale, earthquakes of 6.75 are considered great and 7.0 to 7.75 are considered major. An earthquake that reads 4 to 5.5 would be

,BF~

It is estimated that almost one million earthquakes occur each year, but most of them are so minor that they pass undetected. In fact, more than one thousand earthquakes of a magnitude of 2 or lower on the Richter scale occur every day.

4. What is the value of the tables? CD They allow us to interpret the magnitude of earthquakes. G3 They help us to calculate our distance from earthquakes. O They record all earthquakes. They release the energy of earthquakes.

MODEL TEST 8

5. How does each number on the Richter scale compare? GD Each number is one hundred times as

strong as the previous number. Each magnitude is ten times stronger than the previous magnitude. O The strength of each magnitude is one less than the previous magnitude. CD The scale decreases by five or six for each number.

6. Look at the word TITRE in the passage. Click on the word or phrase in the bold text that VFR? refers to.

released energy. To put that another way, each number on the Richter scale represents an earthquake ten times as strong as one of the next lower magnitude. Specifically, an earthquake of magnitude 6 is ten times as strong as an earthquake of magnitude 5. On the Richter scale, earthquakes of 6.75 are considered great and 7.0 to 7.75 are considered major. An earthquake that reads 4 to 5.5 would be expected to have caused localized damage, and those of magnitude 2 may be felt. The other earthquake-assessment scale, introduced by the Italian seismologist Giuseppe Mercalli, measures the intensity of shaking, using gradations from 1 to 12. Because the effects of such shaking dissipate with distance from the epicenter of the earthquake, the Mercalli rating depends on the site of the measurement. Earthquakes of Mercalli 2 or 3 are basically the same as those of Richter 3 or 4; measurements of 11 or 12 on the Mercalli scale can be roughly correlated with magnitudes of 8 or 9 on the Richter scale. In either case, the relative power or energy released by the earthquake can be

7. What does the author mean by the statement

d : with distance frcIrn the epIi c m K f tl quake, the Mercalli rating depends on the site of the measurement ? GD The Mercalli rating will vary depending

on the location of the measurement. C D The results of the Mercalli rating are less accurate at greater distances from the epicenter. O The stronger shaking of the earthquake at the center is not detected by the Mercalli rating. CD The Mercalli rating is useful because it is taken farther away from the center of the earthquake.

439

8. Look at the word in the passage. Click on the word or phrase in the bold text that is closest in meaning to the word

mmv. .-

major. An earthquake that reads 4 to 5.5 would be expected to have caused localized damage, and those of magnitude 2 may be felt. ' The other earthquake-assessment scale, introduced by the Italian seismologist Giuseppe Mercalli, measures the intensity of shaking, using gradations from 1 to 12. Because the effects of such shaking dissipate with distance from the epicenter of the earthquake, the Mercalli rating depends on the site of the measurement. Earthquakes of Mercalli 2 or 3 are basically the same as those of Richter 3 or 4; measurements of 11 or 12 on the Mercalli scale can be roughly correlated with magnitudes of 8 or 9 on the Richter scale. In either case, the relative power or energy released by the earthquake can be understood, and the population waits to hear how bad the earthquake that just passed really was. It is estimated that almost one million earthquakes occur each year, but most of them are so minor that they pass undetected. In fact, more than one thousand earthquakes of a magnitude of 2 or lower on the Richter scale occur every day.

9. The word hKdetee'fieTf in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to GD with no damage CD with no notice O with no name CD with no problem

major. An earthquake that reads 4 to 5.5 would be expected to have caused localized damage, and those of magnitude 2 may be felt. The other earthquake-assessment scale, introduced by the Italian seismologist Giuseppe Mercalli, measures the intensity of shaking, using gradations from 1 to 12. Because the effects of such shaking dissipate with distance from the epicenter of the earthquake, the Mercalli rating depends on the site of the measurement. Earthquakes of Mercalli 2 or 3 are basically the same as those of Richter 3 or 4; measurements of 11 or 12 on the Mercalli scale can be roughly correlated with magnitudes of 8 or 9 on the R~chterscale. In either case, the relative power or energy released by the earthquake can be understood, and the population waits to hear how bad the earthquake that just passed really was. It is estimated that almost one million earthquakes occur each year, but most of them are so minor that they pass undetected. In fact, more than one thousand earthquakes of a magnitude of 2 or lower on the Richter scale occur every day.

1

i 1 1

I

I

I

1

~

1

440

TOEFL MODEL TESTS

10. With which of the following statements would the author most probably agree? G9 Only the Richter scale describes earthquakes in quantitative terms. GD Both the Richter scale and the Mercalli Scale measure earthquakes in the same way. O ,Most earthquakes are measurable on either the Richter or the Mercalli scale. OD m e Mercalli and the Richter scales are different but they can be compared.

Charles Ives, who is nowadays acclaimed as the first great American composer of the twentieth century, had to wait many years for the public recognition he deserved. Born to music as the son of a bandmaster, lves played drums in his father's community band, and organ at the local church. He entered Yale University at twenty to study musical composition with Horatio Parker, but after graduation, he chose not to pursue a career in music. He suspected correctly that the public would not accept the music he wrote, for lves did not follow the musical fashion of his times. While his

11. The passage discusses all of the following in the explanation of the Richter scale EXCEPT GD It was introduced in 1935. GD It was developed by an American seismologist. O It has a scale of 1 to 12. a It measures the magnitude of earthquakes.

contemporaries wrote lyrical songs, lves transfigured music and musical form. He quoted, combined, insinuated, and distorted familiar hymns, marches, and battle songs, while experimenting with the effects of polytonality, or the simultaneous use of two or more keys, and dissonance, or the clash of keys with conflicting rhythms and time. Even when he could convince some musicians to show some interest in his compositions, after assessing them, conductors and performers said that they were essentially unplayable. Instead, he became a successful insurance executive, building his company into the largest agency in the country in only two decades. Although he occasionally hired musicians to play one of his works prrvately for him, he usually heard his music only in his imagination. After he recovered from a serious heart attack, he became reconciled tothe fact that his ideas, especially the use of dissonance and special effects, were just too different for the musical mainstream to accept. Determined to share his music with the few people who might appreciate it, he published his work privately and distributed it free. In 1939, when lves was sixty-five, American pianist John Kirkpatrick played Concord Sonata in Town Hall. The reviews were laudatory. One reviewer proclaimed it "the greatest music composed by an American." By 1947, lves was famous. His Second Symphony was presented to the public in a performance by the New York Philharmonic, fifty years after it had been written. The same year, lves received the Pulitzer Prize. He was seventy-three.

MODEL TEST 8

12. Which of the following is the main topic of the passage? GD Modem musical composition

Charles Ives' life O The Pulitzer Prize

a Career choices 13. Why didn't the public appreciate Ives' music?

GD It was not performed for a long time. GD It was very different from the music of the time. O The performers did not play it well. a He did not write it down. 14. Look at the word fRREtRF in the passage.

Click on the word in the bold text that is closest in meaning to ' d i s s o b i .

marches, and battle songs, while experimenting with the effects of polytonality, or the simultaneous use of two or more keys, and dissonance, or the clash of keys with conflicting rhythms and time. Even when he could convince some musicians to show some interest in his com~ositions,afler assessing them, conductors and performers said that they were essentially . unplayable. . instead, he became a successful insurance executive, building his company into the largest agency in the country in only two decades. Although he occasionally hired musicians to play one of his works privately for him, he usually heard his,music only in his imagination. After he recovered from a serious heart attack, he became reconciled to the fact that his ideas, especially the use of dissonance and special effects, were just too different for the musical mainstream to accept. Determined to share his music with the few people who might appreciate it, he published his work privately and distributed it free. In 1939, when lves was sixty-five, American pianist John Kirkpatrick played Concord Sonata in

15. The word

441

in paragraph 1 refers to

GD conductors GD performers O interest

CD compositions

marches, and battle songs, while experimenting with the effects of polytonality,or the simultaneous use of two or more keys, and dissonance, or the clash of keys with conflicting rhythms and time. Even when he could convince some musicians to show some interest in his compositions, after assessing them, conductors and performers said that they were essentially unplayable. Instead, he became a successful insurance executive, building his company into the largest agency in the country in only two decades. Although he occasionally hired musicians to play one of his works privately for him, he usually heard his music only in his imagination. After he recovered from a serious heart attack, he became reconciled to the fact that his ideas, especially the use of dissonance and special effects, were just too different for the musical mainstream to accept. Determined to share his music with the few people who might appreciate it, he published his work privately and distributed it free. In 1939, when lves was sixty-five, American pianist John Kirkpatrick played Concord Sonata in

, i

1

I I

j

i

I~ I1 I

i

16. How did Ives make a living for most of his life?

a He conducted a band. GD He taught musical composition. O He owned an insurance company.

a He published music.

442

TOEFL MODEL TESTS

21. Look at the word TT in the passage. Click on the word or phrase in the bold text that W refers to.

17. The phrase F !Z l'Tnriin paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to G9 accepted

CD repeated O disputed

neglected

marches, and battle songs, while experimenting with the effects of polytonality, or the simultaneous use of two or more keys, and dissonance, or the clash of keys with conflicting rhythms and time. Even when he could convince some musicians to show some interest in his compositions, after assessing them, conductors and performers said that they were essentially unplayable. Instead, he became a successful insurance executive, building his company into the largest agency in the country in only two decades. Although he occasionally hired musicians to play one of his works privately for him, he usually heard his music only in his imagination. After he recovered from a serious heart attack, he became reconciled to the fact that his ideas, especially the use of dissonance and special effects, were just too different for the musical mainstream to accept. Determined to share his music with the few people who might appreciate it, he published his work privately and distributed it free. In 1939, when lves was sixty-five, American pianist John Kirkpatrick played Concord Sonata in

executive, building his company into the largest agency in the country in only two decades. Although he occasionally hired musicians to play one of his works privately for him, he usually heard his music only in his imagination. After he recovered from a serious heart attack, he became reconciled to the fact that his ideas, especially the use of dissonance and special effects, were just too different for the musical mainstream to accept. Determined to share his music with the few people who might appreciate it, he published his work privately and distributed it free. In 1939, when lves was sixty-five, American pianist John Kirkpatrick played Concord Sonata i n Town Hall. The reviews were laudatory. One reviewer proclaimed it "the greatest music composed by an American." By 1947, lves was famous. His Second Symphony was presented to the public in a performance by the New York Philharmonic, fifty years after it had been written. The same year, lves received the Pulitzer Prize. He was seventy-three.

,

-P '1.

8

l+i

18. According to the passage, Ives shared his music GD by publishing free copies

by playing it himself O by hiring musicians to perform CD by teaching at Yale

19. Which of the following characteristics is NOT true of the music of Charles Ives? CD It included pieces of familiar songs.

CD It was very experimental. O It was difficult to play.

a It was never appreciated. 20. How was the performance of Concord Sonata received?

GD There were no reviews. CB) The musicians felt it was i~nplayable. O The public would not accept it. CD It established Ives as an important composer.

MODEL TEST 8

22. The following sentence can be added to the passage. Even during such a busy time in his career, he still dedicated himself to composing music in the evenings, on weekends, and during vacations.

Bats are not dirty, bloodthirsty monsters as portrayed in vampire films. These winged mammals groom themselves carefully like cats and only rarely carry rabies. Of the hundreds of species of bats, only three rely on blood meals. In fact, the majority eat fruit, insects, spiders, or small animals; some species gather nectar and

Where would it best fit in the passage? Click on the square (m) to add the sentence to the passage.

pollen from flowers. The environmental benefits of bats are myriad. They consume an enormous number of pests, pollinate many varieties of plant life, and help reforest huge tracts of barren land by

Scroll the passage to see all of the choices.

excreting millions of undigested seeds. Bats also have served as models for sophisticated navigation systems in naval and

marches, and battle songs, while experimenting with the effects of polytonality, or the simultaneous use of two or more keys, and dissonance, or the clash of keys with conflicting rhythms and time. Even when he could convince some musicians to show some interest in his compositions, after assessing them, conductors and performers said that they were essentially unplayable. Instead, he became a successful insurance executive. building his company into the largest agency in the country in only two decades. a Although he occasionally hired musicians to play one of his works privately for him, he usually heard his music only in his imagination.a After he recovered from a serious heart attack, he became reconciled to the fact that his ideas, especially the use of dissonance and special effects, were just too different for the musical mainstream to accept.a Determined to share his music with the few people who might appreciate it, he published his work privately and distributed it free. In 1939, when lves was sixty-five, American pianist John Kirkpatrick played Concord Sonata in

airplane technology. Living models for radar and sonar, almost all bats use echolocation to navigate, especially at night. As they fly, they emit a series of high-pitched squeaks at the rate of about fifty per minute. As these signals bounce off objects in their path, an echo is detected by the bats' sensitive ears that informs them of the direction, distance, and nature of obstacles so that they can undectake corrective or evasive action. Echoes are used by bats but not because of physical limitatrons or impairments, for bats are not blind as widely assumed. In fact, all species of bats can see, probably about as well as human beings. Another myth, about bats being aggressive, intentionally entangling themselves in the hair of human beings, is also totally unfounded. It has been shown in studies not only that bats are timid, but also that they will assiduously avoid contact with larger creatures than themselves if possible. Aggregation during the day may vary from small groups consisting of a single male and a dozen or more females to huge colonies of many thousands or even millions of individuals, hanging upside down in caves or in hollow trees, buildings, or other protected shelters. Within their social systems, bats assume specialized roles. Some guard the entrance to their caves, others scout for food, and still others warn the colony of approaching danger. An adult female bat usually gives birth to only one pup per year, tenderly caring for it, and a nursery colony within a larger colony may provide mother bats with a safe, supportive environment in which to rear their young.

443

TOEFL MODEL TESTS

444

23. With which of the following statements would the author most probably agree?

a Bats are dirty and they carry rabies. Bats are like the monsters in vampire films. O Bats are clean, helpful members of the animal world. a Bats are not very important in the animal world. 24. ~ c c b r d i nto~the passage, what do most bats eat? GD GD O CD

Blood meals Fruit and insects Leaves and trees Large animals

25. Look at the word l%RtRYB in the passage. Click on the word in the bold text that is closest in meaning to enofi533.

Bats are not dirty, bloodthirsty monsters as portrayed in vampire films. These wrnged mammals groom themselves carefully like cats and only rarely carry rabies. Of the hundreds of species of bats, only three rely on blood meals. In fact, the majority eat fruit, insects, spiders, or small animals; some species gather nectar and pollen from flowers. The environmental benefits of bats are myriad. They consume an e1%6~riiious number of pests, pollinate many varieties of plant life, and help reforest huge tracts of barren land by excreting millions of undigested seeds. Bats also have served as models for sophisticated navigation systems in naval and airplane technology. Living models for radar and sonar, almost all bats use echolocation to navigate, especially at night. As they fly, they emit a series of high-pitched squeaks at the rate of about f~ftyper m~nuteAs these slgnals bounce off objects in their path, an echo is detected by the bats' sensltrve ears that informs them of the d~rection,distance, and nature of obstacles so that they can undertake correctwe or evasive action Echoes are used by bats but not because of

27. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of most bats? GD They pollinate plants. GD They have specialized roles in their colony. O They use echolocation. CD They eat blood.

28. The word t?fBE in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to GD send GD continue O find

CD stop

Bats are not dirty, bloodthirsty monsters as portrayed in vampire films. These winged mammals groom themselves carefully like cats and only rarely carry rabies. Of the hundreds of species of bats, only three rely on blood meals. In fact, the majority eat fruit, insects, spiders, or small animals; some species gather nectar and pollen from flowers. The environmental benefits of bats are myriad. They consume an enormous number of pests, pollinate many varieties of plant life, and help reforest huge tracts of barren land by excreting millions of und~gestedseeds. Bats also have served as models for sophisticated navigation systems in naval and airplane technology. L~vingmodels for radar and sonar, almost all bats use echolocation to navigate, especially at night. As they fly, theyemlt a series of high-pitched squeaks at the rate of about fifty per minute. As these signals bounce off objects in their path, an echo is detected by the bats' sensitive ears that informs them of the direction, distance, and nature of obstacles so that they can undertake corrective or evasive action. Echoes are used by bats but not because of

According to the passage, how do bats navigate? GD By responding to the echoes of their

signals bouncing off objects

a By warning the colony of approaching 26. How do bats help reforest the land? C 9 By eating pests

By hanging upside down in trees at night O By excreting seeds CD By taking evasive action

danger with high squeaks O By beating their wings fifty times per

minute CD By using their sensitive ears to hear the noises in their environment

MODEL TEST 8

445

32. Look at the word SRR in the passage. Click on the word or phrase in the bold text that SiFfiE refers to.

30. The word €FiRii in paragraph 2 refers to signals GD objects O bats

a squeaks -

intentionally entangling themselves in the hair of human beings, is also totally unfounded. It has been shown in studies not only that bats are timid, but also that they will assiduously avoid contact with farger creatures than themselves if possible. Aggregation during the day may vary from small groups consisting of a single male and a dozen or more females to huge colonies of many thousands or even millions of individuals, hanging upside down in caves or in hollow trees, buildings, or other protected shelters. Within their social systems, bats assume specialized roles. Some guard the entrance to their caves, others scout for food, and still others warn the colony of approaching danger. An adult female bat usually gives birth to only one pup per year, tenderly caring for it, and a nursery colony within a larger colony may provide mother bats with a safe, supportive environment in which to rear their young.

---

r B a t i are not d~rty,bloodthirsty monsters aTiiiC+l portrayed in vampire~films.These winged mammals groom themselves carefully like cats and only rarely carry rabies. Of the hundreds of species of bats, only three rely on blood meals. In fact, the majority eat fruit, insects, spiders, or small animals; some species gather nectar and pollen from flowers. The environmental benefits of bats are myriad. They consume an enormous number of pests, pollinate many varieties of plant life, and help reforest huge tracts of barren land by excreting millions of undigested seeds. Bats also have sewed as models for sophisticated navigation systems in naval and airplane technology. Living models for radar and sonar, almost all bats use echolocation to navigate, especially at night. As they fly, they emit a series of high-pitched squeaks at the rate of about fifty per minute. As these signals bounce off objects in their path, an echo is detected by the bats' sensitive ears that Informs them of the direction, distance, and nature of obstacles so that thev can undertake corrective or evasive action. Echoes are used by bats but not because of

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3 1. Click on the sentence in paragraph 2 that refers to the visual range of bats. Paragraph 2 is marked with an arrow (->).

-+ Bats also have served as models for sophisticated navigation systems in naval and airplane technology. Living models for radar and sonar, almost all bats use echolocation to navigate, especially at night. As they fly, they emit a series of high-pitched squeaks at the rate of about fifty per minute. As these signals bounce off objects in their path, an echo is detected by the bats' sensitive ears that informs them of the direction, distance, and nature of obstacles so that they can undertake corrective or evasive action. Echoes are used by bats but not because of physical limitations or impairments, for bats are not blind as widely assumed. In fact, all species of bats can see, probably about as well as human beings. Another myth, about bats being aggressive, intentionally entangling themselves in the hair of human being.s, is also totally unfounded. It has been shown in studies not only that bats are timid, but also that they will assiduously avoid contact with larger creatures than themselves if possible. Aggregation during the day may vary from small groups consisting of a single male and a dozen or more females to huge colonies of many

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446

TOEFL MODEL TESTS

33. The following sentence can be added to the passage.

The fact that most Americans live in urban areas does not mean that they reside in the center of large

It is a little known fact that bats are highly social creatures.

cities. In fact, more Americans live in the suburbs of large metropolitan areas than in the cities themselves. The Bureau of the Census regards any area with

Where would it best fit in the passage? Click on the square to the passage.

more than 2500 people as an urban area, and does

(m)to add the sentence

not consider boundaries of cities and suburbs. According to the Bureau, the political boundaries are less significant than the social and economic

Scroll the passage to see all of the choices.

relationships and the transportation and communication systems that integrate a locale. The term used by the Bureau for an integrated metropolis intentionally entangling themselves in the hair of human beings, is also totally unfounded. It has been shown in studies not only that bats are timid, but also that they will assiduously avoid contact with larger creatures than themselves if possible. Aggregation during the day may vary from small groups consisting of a single male and a dozen or more females to huge colonies of many thousands or even millions of individuals, hanging upside down in caves or in hollow trees, buildings, or other protected shelters.. Within their social systems, bats assume specialized roles. rn Some guard the entrance to their caves, others scout for food, and still others warn the colony of approaching danger. .An adult female bat usually gives birth to only one pup per year, tenderly caring for it, and a nursery colony within a larger colony may provide mother bats with a safe, supportive environment in which to rear their young.

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MODEL TEST 8

34. Which of the following is the best title for the passage?

a Metropolitan Statistical Areas CD Types of Population Centers O The Bureau of the Census CD Megapolises 35. According to the passage, where do most Americans live? @

In the center of cities

GD In the suburbs surrounding large cities O In rural areas CD In small towns

36. Look at the word ER'EZ in the passage. Click on the word in the bold text that is closest in meaning to r e m e .

447

38. Which of the following are NOT considered important in defining an urban area?

a Political boundaries CD Transportation networks O Social relationships

a Economic systems 39. The word hrepratis in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to GD benefit define O unite GD restrict

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The fact that most Americans live in urban area:, does not mean that they reside in the center of large c~tiesIn fact, more Amer~canslive in the suburbs ot large metropolitan areas than in the cities themselves. ' The Bureau of the Census regards any area with 1 more than 2500 people as an urban area, and does I not consider boundaries of cities and suburbs. According to the Bureau, the political boundaries are less significant than the social and economic relationships and the transportation and communication systems that integrate a locale. The term used by the Bureau for an integrated metropolis is an MSA, which stands for Metropolitan Statistical Area. In general, an MSA is any area that contains a 1 city and its surrounding suburbs and has a total population of 50,000 or more. At the present time, the Bureau reports more than 280 MSAs, which together account for 75 percent of the US population. In addition, the Bureau recognizes eighteen megapolises, that is, continuous adjacent metropolitan areas. One of the most obvious megapolises includes a chain of hundreds of cities 1 and suburbs across ten states on the East Coast from Massachusetts to Virginia, including Boston, New

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The fact that most Americans live in urban areas does not mean that they reside in the center of large cities.In fact, more Americans live in the suburbs of large metropolitan areas than in the cities themselves. The Bureau of the Census regards any area with more than 2500 people as an urban area, and does not consider boundaries of cities and suburbs. According to the Bureau, the political boundaries are less significant than the social and economic relationships and the transportation and communicationsystems that integrate a locale. The term used by the Bureau for an integrated metropolis IS an MSA, which stands for Metropolitan Statistical Area. In general, an MSA is any area that contains a city and its surrounding suburbs and has a total population of 50,000 or more. At the present time, the Bureau reports more than 280 MSAs, which together account for 75 percent of the US population. In addition, the Bureau recognizes eighteen megapolises, that is, continuous adjacent metropolitan areas. One of the most obvious megapolises includes a chain of hundreds of cities and suburbs across ten states on the East Coast from Massachusetts to Virginia, including Boston, New

37. According to the Bureau of the Census, what is an urban area? GD An area with 2500 people or more CD An area with at least 50,000 people O The eighteen largest cities

a A chain of adjacent cities

1

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TOEFL MODEL TESTS

42. Click on the paragraph that identifies the U.S. population now living in MSAs.

40. Look at the word IRZ5 in the passage. Click on the word in the bold text that is closest in meaning to IoEale .

Scroll the passage to see all of the paragraphs. 43. The word in meaning to

According to the Bureau, the political boundaries are less significant than the social and economic relationships and the transportation and comrnunjcation systems that integrate a locale. The term used by the Bureau for an integrated metropolis is an MSA, which stands for Metropolitan Statistical A m . In general, an MSA is any area that contains a city and its surrounding suburbs and has a total population of 50,000 or more. At the present time, the Bureau reports more than 280 MSAs, which together account for 75 percent of the US population. In addition, the Bureau recognizes eighteen megapolises, that is, continuous adjacent metropolitan areas. One of the most obvious rnegapolises includes a Chain of hundreds of cities and suburbs across ten states on the East Coast from Massachusettsto Virginia, including Boston, New York, and Washington, D.C. In the Eastern Corridor, as it is called, a population of 45 million inhabitants is concentrated. Another rnegapolis that is growing rapidly is the California coast from San Francisco through Los Angeles to San Diego.

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in paragraph 3 is closest

@ beside each other CD growing very fast O the same size

densely populated

Area. In general, an MSA IS any area that contains a city and its surrounding suburbs and has a total population of 50,000 or more. At the present time, the Bureau reports more than 280 MSAs, which together account for 75 percent of the US population. In addition, the Bureau recognizes eighteen rnegapolises, that is, continuous adjacent metropolitan areas. One of the most obvious megapolises includes a chain of hundreds of cities and suburbs across ten states on the East Coast from Massachusetts to Virginia, including Boston, New York, and Washington, D.C. In the Eastern Corridor, as it is called, a population of 45 million inhabitants is concentrated. Another rnegapolis that is growing rapidly is the California coast from San Francisco through Los Angeles to San Diego.

41. The word IT in paragraph 2 refers to

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a the population's

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According to the Bureau, the political boundaries are less significant than the social and economic relationships and the transportation and communication svstems that integrate a locale. The term used by the-~ureau for an litegrated metropolis IS an MSA, which stands for Metropolitan Statist~cal Area. In general, an MSA is any area that contains a : city andits surrounding suburbs and has a total population of 50,000 or more. At the present time, the Bureau reports more than '. . 280 MSAs, which together account for 75 percent of the US population. In addition, the Bureau recognizes ?: eighteen megapolises, that is, continuous adjacent metropolitan areas. One of the most obvious rnegapolises includes a chain of hundreds of cities and suburbs across ten states on the East Coast from Massachusettsto Virginia, including Boston, New York, and Washington, D.C. In the Eastern Corridor, as it is called, a population of 45 million inhabitants is concentrated. Another megapolis that is growing rapidly is the California coast from San Francisco through Los Angeles to San Diego.

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44. According to the passage, what is a megapolis? GD One of the ten largest cities in the United States CD One of the eighteen largest cities in the United States O One of the one hundred cities between Boston and Washington a Any number of continuous adjacent cities and suburbs

MODEL TEST 8

449

45. Why does the author mention the Eastern Corridor and the California coast in paragraph 3? As examples of megapolises C D Because 75 percent of the population lives there O To conclude the passage The Bureau of the Census is located there Paragraph 3 is marked with an arrow (+).

Area. In general, an MSA is any area that contains a city and its surrounding suburbs and has a total population of 50,000 or more. -+ At the present time, the Bureau reports more than 280 MSAs, which together account for 75 percent of the US population. In addition, the Bureau recognizes eighteen megapolises, that is, continuous adjacent metropolitan areas. One of the most obvious rnegapolises includes a chain of hundreds of cities and suburbs across ten states on the East Coast from Massachusettsto Virginia, including Boston, New York, and Washington, D.C. In the Eastern Corridor, as it is called, a population of 45 million inhabitants is concentrated. Another megapolis that is growing rapidly is the California coast from San Francisco through Los Angeles to San Diego.

To check your answers for Model Test 8, refer to the Answer Key on page 495. For an explanation of the answers, refer to the Explanatory Answers for Model Test 8 on pages 641-660.

TOEFL MODEL TESTS

450

Writing Section: Model Test 8 When you take a Model Test, you should use one sheet of paper, both sides. Time each Model Test carefully. After you have read the topic, you should spend 30 minutes writing. For results that would be closest to the actual testing situation, it is recommended that an English teacher score your test, using the guidelines on page 244 of this book.

Read and think about the following statement: The college years are the best time in a person's life. Do you agree or disagree with the statement? Give reasons to support your opinion. Notes

To check your essay, refer to the Checklist on page 495. For an Example Essay, refer to the Explanatory Answers for Model Test 8 on pages 660-66 1.

MODEL TEST 9

451

Model Test 9

Next Generation TOEFL

Listening Section This is the Listening Section of the Next Generation TOEFL Model Test. This section tests your ability to understand campus conversations and academic lectures. During the test, you will respond to two conversations and four lectures. You will hear each conversation and lecture one time. You may take notes while you listen. You may use your notes to answer the questions. After each conversation or lecture, you will have five or six questions to answer. Choose the best answer for multiple-choice questions. Follow the directions on the page or on the screen for computer-assisted questions. Click on OK and Next to go to the next question. You cannot return to previous questions. You have 25 minutes to answer all of the questions. A clock on the screen will show you how much time you have to complete your answers for the section. The clock does not count the time you are listening to the conversations and lectures.

lndepelide~itListeni~ig1: "Career Counseling" Directions: Choose the best answer for multiple-choice questions. Follow the directions on the page for computerassisted questions. 1 . What are the students mainly discussing?

a

Group sessions in the Office of Career Development.

CD The advantages of career counseling for the man. O The woman's internship in the Office of Career Development.

a How to find employment in the field of career counseling. 2. What is the man's problem? GD He does not have time to see an advisor. CD He does not have an internship yet. O He does not know which career to choose.

a

He does not have a job offer after graduation.

3. Why does the woman tell the man about her experience? G 9 To demonstrate the benefits of going to the Office of Career Development.

GD To encourage the man to talk with an advisor about an internship. O To suggest that he change his major from math to library science.

CD To give the man her opinion about his 'career decision.

4. What is the woman's attitude toward her internship?

She would rather go to graduate school. CD She is looking forward to interning. O She thinks that it is a very positive experience.

a She will be happy when she completes it. 5. What will the man probably do? GD He will make an appointment with his academic advisor.

GD He will go to the Office of Career Development. O He will apply for a job at the library. CD

He will ask the woman to help him with h.is tests.

Directions: Choose the best answer for multiple-choice questions. Follow the directions on the page for computerassisted questions. 6. Why does the student go to the admissions office? CO CD O O

.He is applying for financial aid. He is requesting an official transcript. He is transferring to another college. He is trying to enroll in classes.

7 . What is missing from the student's file? GD A financial aid application. CD A transcript from County Community College. O Grades from Regional College.

An officiar copy of the application.

8. Listen again to part of the conversation. Then answer the question. "Oh, and you haven't been able to register for your courses here at State University because the computer shows that you are missing some of your application materials. Is that it?" Why does the woman say this: "Is that it?" GD She is asking the man to finish explaining the situation. GD She is confirming that she understands the problem. O She is expressing impatience with the man's explanation.

a She is trying to comprehend a difficult question. 9. What does the woman suggest that the man do? (23 Make a copy of his transcripts for his personal file.

GD Complete all of the admissions forms as soon as possible. O Change his provisional status to regular status before registering.

a Continue to request an official transcript from County Community College. 10. What will the student most probably do now? GO Return later in the day to see the woman in the Admissions Office.

CD Go to the Office for Transfer Students to be assigned an advisor. O Enter information in the computer to complete the application process.

CIB See the woman's superior to get a provisional admission to State University.

MODEL TEST 9

453

Independent Listening 3: "Groups" Directions: Choose the best answer for multiple-choice questions. Follow the directions on the page for computerassisted questions. 11. What is the main topic of the talk? The problems inherent in group decisions. CD Ways that individuals become popular in groups. O The influence of groups on individual behavior. a The differences in social influence across cultures. QJ

12. According to the professor, what two results were reported in the Asch and Abrams studies? Click on 2 answers. A larger group exerts significantly more pressure than a smaller group. Subjects conformed to group opinion in more than one-third of the trials. When the subject knows the group socially, there is greater pressure to conform. A majority opinion has as much influence as a unanimous opinion.

13. Listen again to part of the lecture. Then answer the question. "Later Asch manipulated the size of the control group . . . I'm sorry . . . the experimental group . . . to see whether group size would affect pressure, and it did, but probably less than you might expect." Why does the professor say this: "I'm sony. The experimental group . . ." CD

She regretted the result of the experiment.

CD She knew that the stu.dents would not like the information. O She needed to correct what she had said in a previous statement.

a

She neglected to mention important facts.

14. What generally happens after a group makes a decision? GD Some group members regret their decision. GD At least one group member presents a new idea. O As a whole, the group is even more united in its judgment.

a The popular group members compete for leadership. 15. Based on information in the lecture, indicate whether the statements describe the Asch study. For each sentence, click in the YES or NO column.

YES A

Only one subject is being tested.

B The cards can be interpreted several ways. C Some of the group collaborate with the experimenter.

NO

454

TOEFL MODEL TESTS

Independent Listeninq 4: "Photoqraphy" Directions: Choose the best answer for multiple-choice questions. Follow the directions on the page for computerassisted questions. 16. What is the main topic of this lecture?

a The process of fixing a photograph. a The problem of exposure time. O The experiments by Louis Daguerre.

CD The history of early photography.

17. According to the professor, what two limitations were noted in Daguerre's process for developing and fixing latent images? Click on 2 answers. The photograph disappeared after a few minutes. The images were very delicate and easily fell apart, Multiple images could not be made from the plate. The exposure time was still several hours long. 18. Listen again to part of the lecture. Then answer the question. "At first, he couldn't figure out why, but eventually, he concluded that this must have occurred as a result of mercury vapor from a broken thermometer that was also.. .enclosed in the cupboard. Supposedly, from this fortunate accident, he was able to invent a process for developing latent images on . . . exposed plates." Why does the professor say this: "Supposedly, from this fortunate accident, he was able to invent a process for developing latent images o n . . . exposed plates." GD She is trying to generate interest in the topic.

a She makes reference to a story in the textbook. O She is not certain that the account is true.

a She wants the students to use their imaginations. 19. What substance was first used to fix the images? Copper powder. CD Table salt. O Mercury vapor. Hot water. 20. What can we assume about photographers in the 1800s? Most of them had originally been painters before they became interested in photography.

GD Portrait photographers were in the highest demand since people wanted images of their families. O There were only a few photographers who were willing to work in such a new profession.

a Some of them must have experienced health problems as a result of their laboratory work.

MODEL TEST 9

455

Independent Listeninq 5: "Authorityyy Directions: Choose the best answer for multiple-choice questions. Follow the directions on the page for computerassisted questions.

21. What is the main purpose of this lecture?

CD To discuss three types of authority.

a To distinguish between power and authority. O To examine alternatives to Weber's model.

a To argue in favor of a legal rational system. 22. According to the professor, what two factors are associated with charismatic authority? Click on 2 answers. Sacred customs. An attractive leader. A social cause. Legal elections.

23. Listen again to part of the lecture. Then answer the question. "But what about power that is accepted by members of society as right and just, that is, legitimate power? Now we're talking about authority. And that is what I want to focus on today." Why does the professor say this: "But what about power that is accepted by members of society as right and just, that is, legitimate power?"

a He is asking the students to answer a question. CD He is introducing the topic of the lecture. O He is expressing an opinion about the subject. CD He is reminding students of a previous point.

24. In an evolutionary model, how is rational legal authority viewed? @

The most modern form of authority.

CD A common type of authority in the industrial age. O Authority used by traditional leaders. CD A replacement for the three ideal types of authority.

25. What does the professor imply about the three types of authority?

a There is only one legitimate type of authority in modern societies. a Sociologists do not agree about the development of the types of authority. O Societies tend to select and retain one type of authority indefinitely. CD Weber's modei explains why the social structure rejects power over time.

TOEFL MODEL TESTS

456

Independent Listerling 6: "Mineral Exploitation" Directions: Choose the best answer for multiple-choice questions. Follow the directions on the page for computerassisted questions. 26. What is the main topic of this lecture?

aHow to exploit nonrenewable mineral resources. a The exploitation of minerals in protected environments. O .Pollution as a by-product of mineral exploitation.

The economic and environmental costs of exploiting minerals.

27. According to the professor, what are two problems that can be anticipated when roads are cut into an area for mining? Click on 2 answers. The labor-isdifficult to retain. The natural landscape is damaged. The roadbeds create waste piles. The ecosystem is disturbed.

28. Listen again to part of the lecture. Then answer the question. "And I was just thinking that in addition to the economic costs of the transportation for trucks and fuel and labor and everything, there could be, there might be some construction too, if there aren't any roads in and out of the area." "And that would mean . . ." Why does the professor say this: "And that would mean . . ."

a As encouragement for the student to give a more complete answer. Because he doesn't understand the student's answer. O To give another student an opportunity to speak. a For positive reinforcement of a correct answer. 29. What option is proposed as an alternative'when all of the mineral resources in easily accessible locations have been depleted? Converting to nonrenewable resources. Concentrating on conservation of the resources. O Developing synthetic resources to replace minerals. O Using new technology to search the area again. @

30. What does the professor imply about the environmental costs of mineral exploitation?

He thinks that the environmental costs are less than the economic costs. He regrets that the environment is damaged during mineral exploitation. O He opposes mineral exploitation when it is done close to urban areas. a He believes in exploiting the reserves in national parks and historic reserves. To check your answers for the Listening Section of Model Test 9, refer to the Answer Key on page 496. For an explanation of the answers, refer to the Explanatory Answers for Model Test 9 on pages 662-676.

MODEL TEST 9

457

Speaking Section This is the Speaking Section of the Next Generation TOEFL Model Test. This section tests your ability to communicate in English in an academic context. During the test, you will respond to six speaking questions. You may take notes as you listen. You may use your notes to answer the questions. The reading passages and the questions are printed in the book, but most of the directions will be spoken. Your speaking will be evaluated on both the fluency of the language and the accuracy of the content. A clock on the screen will show you how much time you have to prepare your answer and how much time you have to record it.

Indenendent Sbeakina Question 1: "A Book" Question: Think about a book that you have enjoyed reading. Why did you like it? What was especially interesting about the book? Use specific details and examples to support your response. Preparation Time: 15 seconds Recording Time: 45 seconds

Indenendent Stleakina Question 2: "Foreian Travel" Question: Some people think that it is better to travel as part of a tour group when they are visiting a foreign country. Other people prefer to make their own travel plans so that they can travel independently. Which approach do you think is better and why? Use specific reasons and examples to support your opinion. Preparation Time: 15 seconds Recording Time: 45 seconds

458

TOEFL MODEL TESTS

lntegrated Speakinq Question 3: "Old Main" Reading Time: 45 seconds Notice Concernin? Old Main The college will be celebrating the one-hundredth anniversary of the founding of the school by renovating Old Main, the original building. Two alternative plans are being considered. One plan would ieave the outer structure intact and concentrate on electrical and plumbing upgrades as well as minor structural support. The other plan would demolish all of the building except the clock tower, which would form the centerpiece of a new structure. An open meeting is scheduled for Friday afternoon at three o'clock in the Old Main auditorium.

Question: The professor expresses her opinion of the plan for the renovation of Old Main. Report her opinion and explain the reasons that she gives for having that opinion. Preparation Time: 30 seconds Recording Time: 60 seconds

Integrated Speakinq Question 4: "Communication with Primates" Reading Time: 45 seconds Communication with Primates Early experiments to teach primates to communicate with their voices failed because of the differences in their vocal organs, not their intellectual capacity. Dramatic progress was observed when researchers began to communicate by using American Sign Language. Some chimpanzees were able to learn several hundred signs that they put together to express a number of relationships similar to the initial language acquisition of children. In addition, success was achieved by using plastic symbols on a magnetic board, each of which represented a word. For example, a small blue triangle represented an apple. Chimpanzees were able to respond correctly to basic sequences and even to form some higher-level concepts by using the representative system.

Question: Explain the importance of the Kanzi experiment in the context of research on primate communication. Preparation Time: 30 seconds Recording Time: 60 seconds

MODEL TEST 9

459

lnteqrated Speakinq Question 5: "Headaches" Question: Describe the woman's problem and the two suggestions that her friend makes about how to handle it. What do you think the woman should do, and why? Preparation Time: 20 seconds Recording Time: 60 seconds

lnteqrated Speakinq Question 6: "Fax Machines" Question: Using the main points and examples from the lecture, describe the three parts of a fax machine and then explain how the fax process works. Preparation Time: 20 seconds Recording Time: 60 seconds

To check your answers for the Speaking Section of Model Test 9, refer to the Checklists on page 496. For Example Answers, refer to the Explanatory Answers for Model Test 9 on pages 677-682.

460

TOEFL MODEL TESTS

Reading Section This is the Reading Section of the Next Generation TOEFL Model Test. This section tests your ability to understand reading passages like those in college textbooks. There are three passages. After each passage, you will answer twelve or thirteen questions about it. Most questions are worth one point, but one question in each passage is worth more than one point. You will have 25 minutes to read each passage and answer the comprehension questions. You may take notes while you read. You may use your notes to answer the questions. Choose the best answer for multiple- choice questions. Follow the directions on the page or on the screen for computer-assisted questions. Click on Next to go to the next question. Click on Back to return to the previous question. You may return to previous questions in the same reading passage, but after you go to the next passage, you may not return to a previous passage. A clock on the screen will show you how much time you have to complete each passage.

Independent Reading 1: "Symbiotic Relationships" Directions: Choose the best answer for multiple-choice questions. Follow the directions on the page for computerassisted questions. Symbiosis is a close, long-lasting, physical relationship between two different species. In other words, the two species are usually in physical contact and at least one of them derives some sort of benefit from this contact. There are three different categories of symbiotic relationshlps: parasitism, commensalism, and mutualism. Parasitism is a relationship in which one organism, known as the parasite, lives in or on another organism, known as the host, from which it derives nourishment. Generally, the parasite is much smaller than the host. Although the host is harmed by the interaction, it is generally not killed immediately by the parasite, and some host individuals may live a long time and be relatively little affected by their parasites. Some parasites are much more destructive than others, however. Newly established parasitehost relationships are likely to be more destructive than those that have a long evolutionary history. With a longstanding interaction between the parasite and the host, the two species generally evolve in such a way that they can accommodate one another. It is not in the parasite's best interest to kill its host. If it does, it must find another. Likewise, the host evolves defenses against the parasite, often reducing the harm done by the parasite to a level the host can tolerate. Parasites that live on the surface of their hosts are known as ectoparasites. Fleas, lice, and some molds and mildews are examples of ectoparasites. Many other parasites, like tapeworms, malaria parasites, many kinds of bacteria, and some fungi are called endoparasites because they live inside the bodies of their hosts. A tapeworm lives in the intestines of its host where it is able to resist being digested and makes u\e of the nutrients in the intestine. Even plants can be parasites. Mistletoe is a flowering plant that is parasitic on trees. It establishes itself on the surface of a tree when a bird transfers the seed to the tree. It then grows down into the water-

MODEL TEST 9

conducting tissues of the tree and uses the water and minerals it obtains from these tissues to support its own growth. If the relationship between organisms is one in which one organism benefits while the other is not affected, it is called commensalism. It is possible to visualize a parasitic relationship evolving into a commensal one. Since parasites generally evolve to do as little harm to their host as possible and the host is combating the negative effects of the parasite, they might eventually evolve to the point where the host is not harmed at all. There are many examples of commensal relationships. Many orchids use trees as a surface upon which to grow. The tree is not harmed or helped, but the orchid needs a surface upon which to establish itself and also benefits by being close to the top of the tree, where it can get more sunlight and rain. Some mosses, ferns, and many vines also make use of the surfaces of trees in this way. In the ocean, many sharks have a smaller fish known as a remora attached to them. Remoras have a sucker on the top of their heads that they can use to attach to the shark. In this way, they can hitchhike a ride as the shark swims along. When the shark feeds, the remora frees itself and obtains small bits of food that the shark misses. Then, the remora reattaches. The shark does not appear to be positively or negatively affected by remoras. Mutualism is another kind of symbiotic relationship and is actually beneficial to both species involved. In many mutualistic relationships, the relationship is obligatory; the species cannot live without each other. In others, the species can exist separately but are more successful when they are involved in a mutualistic relationship. Some species of Acacia, a thorny tree, provide food in the form of sugar solutions in little structures on their stems. Certain species of ants feed on the solutions and live in the tree, which they will protect from other animals by attacking any animal that begins to feed on the tree. Both organisms benefit; the ants receive food and a place to live, and the tree is protected from animals that would use it as food. One soil nutrient that is usually a limiting factor for plant growth is nitrogen. Many kinds of plants, such as beans, clover, and alder trees, have bacteria that live in their roots in little nodules. The roots form these nodules when they are infected with certain kinds of bacteria. The bacteria do not cause disease but provide the plants with nitrogencontaining molecules that the plants can use for groWth. The nitrogenfixing bacteria benefit from the living site and nutrients that the plants provide, and the plants benefit from the nitrogen they receive. Glossary: sucker: an adaptation for sucking nourishment or sticking to a surface nodules: growths in the form of knots

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Question References: "Symbiotic Relationships" Symbiosis is a close, long-lasting, physical relationship between two different species. In other words, the two species are usually in physical contact and at least one of themsome sort of benefit from this contact. There are three different categories of symbiotic relationships: parasitism, commensalism, and mutualism. Parasitism is a relationship in w h c h one organism, known as the parasite, lives in or on another organism, known as the host, from which ? derives nourishment. Generally, the parasite is much smaller than the host. Although the host is harmed by the interaction, it is generally not killed immediately by the parasite, and some host individuals may live a long time and be r m i q little affected by their parasites. Some parasites are much more destructive than others, however. refation>hips are 11kely to be more destructive than those that have a long evolutionary history. With a long-standing interaction between the parasite and the host, the two species generally evolve in such a way that they can accommodate one another. It is not in the parasite's best interest to lull its host. If it does, it must find another. Likewise, the host evolves defenses against the parasite, often reducing the harm done by the parasite to a level the host can e:Parasites that live on the surface of their hosts are known as ectoparasites. Fleas, lice, and some molds and mildews are examples of ectoparasites. Many other parasites, like tapeworms, malaria parasites, many h n d s of bacteria, and some fungi are called endoparasites because they live inside the bodies of their hosts. A tapeworm lives in the intestines of its host where it is able to resist being digested and makes use of the nutrients in the intestine. Even plants can be parasites. Mistletoe is a flowering plant that is parasitic on trees. It establishes itself on the surface of a tree when a bird transfers the seed to the tree. It then grows down into the waterconducting tissues of the tree and uses the water and minerals it obtains from these tissues to support its own growth. If the relationship between organisms is one in which one organism benefits while the other is not affected, it is called commensalism. It is possible to visualize a parasitic relationship evolving into a commensal one. Since parasites generally evolve to do as little harm to their host as possible and the host is combating the negative effects of the parasite, they might eventually evolve to the point where the host is not harmed at all. There are many examples of commensal relationships. Many orchids use trees as a surface upon which to grow. The tree is not harmed or helped, but the orchid needs a surface upon which to establish itself and also benefits by being close to the top of the tree, where it can get more sunlight and rain. Some mosses, ferns, and many vines also make use of the surfaces of trees in this way. In the ocean, many sharks have a smaller fish known as a remora attached to them. Remoras have a sucker on the top of their heads that they can use to attach to the shark. In this way, they can hitchhike a ride as the shark swims along. When the shark feeds, the remora frees itself and obtains small bits of food that the shark misses. Then. the remora

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reattaches. The shark does not appear to be positively or negatively affected by remoras. Mutualism is another kind of symbiotic relationship andy-si beneficial to both species involved. In many mutualistic relationships, the relationship is obligatory; the species cannot live without each other. In others, the species can exist separately but are more successful when they are involved in a mutualistic relationship. Some species of Acacia, a thorny tree, provide food in the form of sugar solutions in little structures on their stems. Certain species of ants feed on the solutions and live in the tree, which they will protect from other animals by attacking any animal that begins to feed on the tree. Both organisms benefit; the ants receive food and a place to live, and the tree is protected from animals that would use it as food. One soil nutrient that is usually a limiting factor for plant growth is nitrogen. Many kinds of plants, such as beans, clover, and alder trees, have bacteria that live in their roots in little nodules. The roots form these nodules when they are infected with certain kinds of bacteria. The bacteria do not cause disease but provide the plants with nitrogencontaining molecules that the plants can use for growth. The nitrogenfixing bacteria benefit from the living site and nutrients that the plants provide, and the plants benefit from the nitrogen they receive. Glossary: sucker: an adaptation for sucking nourishment or sticking to a surface nodules: growths in the form of knots

1. The word -in @

the passage is closest in meaning to

requests

CD pursues O obtains

rejects

2. The word V in the passage refers to GD host

a

organism

CD parasite

relationship

3. The word comparatively

a routinely O adversely

a

frequently

in the passage is closest in meaning to

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A parasite is less likely to destroy the host when it attaches itself at first. OD Parasites that have lived on a host for a long time have probably done a lot of damage. O The most destructive phase for a host is when the parasite first invades it.

a The relationship between a parasite and a host will evolve over time. 5. The word

in the passage is closest in meaning to

GD permit

a ,oppose O profit CD avoid

6. According to paragraph 3, how do ectoparasites survive? GD They live in mold and mildew on their hosts. C8) They digest food in the intestines of their hosts. O They live on the nutrients in their bacterial hosts. C D They inhabit the outside parts of their hosts. 7. Which of the following is mentioned as an example of a commensal relationship? GD Orchids

a Mistletoe @>

Ants Fungus

8. The word-

in the passage is closest in meaning to

C D frequently

GD initially really @> usually

9. In paragraph 7, why does the author use the example of the Acacia tree? To demonstrate how ants survive by living in trees To explain how two species can benefit from contact O To show the relationship between plants and animals CD To present a problem that occurs often in nature 10. How does bacteria affect beans and clover? It causes many of the plants to die. CD It limits the growth of young plants. O It supplies nitrogen to the crops. a It infects the roots with harmful nodules. C D

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11. Four squares (

465

n) indicate where the following sentence can be added to the passage.

They live on the feathers of birds or the fur of animals.

Where would the sentence best fit into the passage? 12. In which of the following chapters would this passage most probably appear?

a Environment and Organisms Pollution and Policies O Human Influences on Ecosystems

a Energy Resources 13. Complete a summary of the passage by choosing THREE answer choices that express the most important ideas. The other three sentences do not belong in the summary because they express ideas that are not in the passage or they are minor points that are not as important as the three major points. This question is worth 2 points.

What are the categories of relationships between species? GD In commensalism, one species benefits, and the other is not affected.

a Mistletoe is a flowering plant that establishes a parasitic relationship on trees. O A mutualistic relationship allows both species to benefit from their contact.

a Bacteria provides plants with nitrogen while deriving nutrients from the plants. O Parasites live and feed in or on another organism referred to as a host. O Sharks and remora enjoy a commensal relationship in which the shark is not harmed.

Indenendent Readina 2: "Civilization" Directions: Choose the best answer for multiple-choice questions. Follow the directions on the page for computerassisted questions. Between 4000 and 3000 B.c., significant technical developments began to transform the Neolithic towns. The invention of writing enabled records to be kept, and the use of metals marked a new level of human control over the environment and its resources. Already before 4000 B.c., craftspeople had discovered that metal-bearing rocks could be heated to liquefy metals, which could then be cast in molds to produce tools and weapons that were more useful than stone instruments. Although copper was the first metal to be utilized in producing tools, after 4000 B.c., craftspeople in western Asia discovered that a combination of copper and tin produced bronze, a much harder and more durable metal than copper. Its widespread use has led historians to speak of a Bronze Age from around 3000 to 1200 B.c., when bronze was increasingly replaced by iron. At first, Neolithic settlements were hardly more than villages. But as their inhabitants mastered the art of farming, they gradually began to give birth to more complex human societies. As wealth increased, such societies began to develop armies and to build walled cities. By the beginning of the Bronze Age, the concentration of larger numbers

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of people in the river valleys of Mesopotamia and Egypt was leading to a whole new pattern for human life. As we have seen, early human beings formed small groups that developed a simple culture that enabled them to survive. As human societies grew and developed greater complexity, a new form of human existence+alled civilization--came into being. A civilization is a complex culture in which large numbers of human beings share a number of common elements. Historians have identified a number of basic characteristics of civilizations, most of which are evident in the Mesopotamian and Egyptian civilizations. These include (1) an urban revolution: cities became the focal points for political, economic, social, cultural, and religious development; (2) a distinct religious structure: the gods were deemed crucial to the community's success, and professional priestly classes, as stewards of the gods' property, regulated relations with the gods; (3) new political and military structures: an organized government bureaucracy arose to meet the administrative demands of the growing population while armies were organized to gain land and power; (4) a new social structure based on economic power: while kings and an upper class of priests, political leaders, and wamors dominated, there also existed a large group of free people (farmers, artisans, craftspeople) and at the very bottom, socially, a class of slaves; (5) the development of writing: kings, priests, merchants, and artisans used writing to keep records; and (6) new forms of significant artistic and intellectual activity, such as monumental architectural structures, usually religious, occupied a prominent place in urban environments. Why early civilizations developed remains difficult to explain. Since civilizations developed independently in India, China, Mesopotamia, and Egypt, can general causes be identified that would explain why all of these civilizations emerged? A number of possible explanations of the beginning of civilization have been suggested. A theory of challenge and response maintains that challenges forced human beings to make efforts that resulted in the rise of civilization. Some scholars have adhered to a material explanation. Material forces, such as the growth of food surpluses, made possible the specialization of labor and development of large communities with bureaucratic organization. But the area of the Fertile Crescent, in which Mesopotarnian civilization emerged, was not naturally conducive to agriculture. Abundant food could only be produced with a massive human effort to carefully manage the water, an effort that created the need for organization and bureaucratic control and led to civilized cities. Some historians have argued that nonmaterial forces, primarily religious, provided the sense of unity and purpose that made such organized activities possible. Finally, some scholars doubt that we are capable of ever discovering the actual causes of early civilization.

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Question References: "Civilization" Between 4000 and 3000 B.c., significant technical developments began to uansfonn the Neolithic towns. The invention of writing enabled records to be kept, and the use of metals marked a new level of human control over the environment and its resources. Already before 4000 B.c., craftspeople had discovered that metal-bearing rocks could be heated to liquefy metals, which could then be cast in molds to produce tools and weapons that were more useful than stone instruments. Although copper was the first metal to be utilized in producing tools, in western Asia discovered that a combiafter 4000 B.c., craftspeople - nation of copper and tin produced bronze, a much harder and more durable metal than copper. widespread use has led historians to speak of a Bronze Age from around 3000 to 1200 B.c., when bronze was increasingly replaced by iron. At first, Neolithic settlements were more than villages. But as their inhabitants mastered the art of farming, they gradually began to give birth to more complex human societies. As wealth increased, such societies began to develop armies and to build walled cities. By the beginning of the Bronze Age, the concentration of larger numbers of people in the river valleys of Mesopotamia and Egypt was leading to a whole new pattern for human life. As we have seen, early human beings formed small groups that developed a simple culture that enabled them to survive. As human societies grew and developed greater complexity, a new form of human existence+alled civilization+arne into being. A civilization is a complex culture in which large numbers of human beings share a number of common elements. R s T o r i a n s - h a v e . i ~ i e da nu%sic cnaracferistics o f m a t i o n s , most of which are evident in thc Mesopotamian and Egyptian civilizations. These include (1) an urban revolution: cities became the focal points for political, economic, social, cultural, and religious development; (2) a distinct religious structure: the gods were deemed crucia'l to the community's success, and professional priestly classes, as stewards of the gods' property, regulated relations with the gods; (3) new political and military structures: an organized government bureaucracy arose to meet the administrative demands of the growing population while armies were organized to gain land and power; (4) a new social structure based on economic power: while kings and an upper class of priests, political leaders, and warriors dominated, there also existed a large group of free people (farmers, artisans, craftspeople) and at the very bottom, socially, a class of slaves; ( 5 ) the development of writing: kings, priests, merchants, and artisans used writing to keep records; and (6) new forms of significant artistic and intellectual activity, such as monumental architectural structures, usually religious, occupied a place in urban environments. Why early civilizations developed remains difficult to explain. Since civilizations developed independently in India, China, Mesopotamia, and Egypt, can general causes be identified that would explain why all of these civilizations emerged? A number of possible explanations of the beginning of civilization have been

-

'ffffm

467

civilization. Some scholars have adhered to a material explanation. Material forces, such as the growth of food surpluses, made possible the specialization of labor and development of large communities with bureaucratic organization. But the area of the Fertile Crescent, in which Mesopotamian civilization emerged, was not naturally conducive to agriculture. Abundant food could only be produced with a massive human effort to carefully manage the water, an effort that created the need for organization and bureaucratic control and led to civilized cities. Some historians have argued that nonmaterial forces, primarily religious, provided the sense of unity and purpose that made such organized activities possible. Finally, some scholars doubt that we are capable of ever discovering the actual causes of early civilization.

1. Which of the following is the best definition of a civilization? GD Neolithc towns and cities

CD Types of complex cultures Q An agricultural community a Large population centers 2. The word

in the passage refers to

a copper bronze O metal C D iron CD

3. According to paragraph 2, what happens as societies become more prosperous? More goods are produced. a Walled cities are built. Q Laws are instituted. a The size of families is increased.

4. The word -in

the passage is closest in meaning to

GD frequently

a li.kely O barely

CD obviously 5. Why does the author mention Neolithic towns?

a To give an example of a civilization a To explain the invention of writing systems O To argue that they should be classified as villages

CD To contrast them with the civilizations that evolved

GO There was an upper class and a lower class. C D There were slaves, free people, and a ruling class.

O There was a king, an army, and slaves. CD There were intellectuals and uneducated farmers and workers.

7. Which of the sentences below best expresses the information in the highlighted statement in the passage? The other choices change the meaning or leave out important information. GD Mesopotamian and Egyptian civilizations exhibit the majority of the characteristics identified by historians. GD The characteristics that historians have identified are not found in the Egyptian and Mesopotamian cultures. O Civilizations in Mesopotamia and Egypt were identified by historians who were studying the characteristics of early cultures. GD The identification of most historical civilizations includes either Egypt or Mesopotamia on the list.

8. The word ,m in the passage is closest in meaning to O fundamental

arbitrary O disruptive suitable @

9. The word

in the passage is closest in meaning to

O weak @ important O small CD new 10. According to paragraph 4, how can the independent development of civilization in different geographic regions be explained? GD Scholars agree that food surpluses encouraged populations to be concentrated in certain areas.

CD There are several theories that explain the rise of civilization in the ancient world. O The model of civilization was probably carried from one region to another along trade routes. CD Historians attribute the emergence of early cities at about the same time as a coincidence.

11. All of the following are cited as reasons why civilizations developed EXCEPT GD Religious practices unified the population. GD The management of water required organization. O A major climate change made living in groups necessary. a Extra food resulted in the expansion of population centers.

12. Four squares ( ) indicate I where the following sentence can be added to the passage.

Some historians believe they can be established. Where would the sentence best fit into the passage?

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470

13. Complete a summary of the passage by choosing THREE answer choices that express the most important ideas. The other three sentences do not belong in the summary because they express ideas that are not in the passage or they are minor points that are not as important as the three major points. This question is worth 2 points.

What are some of the qualities that define a civilization? @

GD O CD O O

Free citizens who work in professions for pay Bureaucracies for the government and armies Libraries to house art and written records A strategic location near rivers or the sea Organized religion, writing, and art A densely populated group with a class structure

Independent Reading 3: "'The Scientific Method" Directions: Choose the best answer for multiple-choice questions. Follow the directions on the page for computerassisted questions. In brief, the modem scientific method is an organized approach to explaining observed facts, with a model of nature, subject to the constraint that any proposed model must be testable and the provision that the model must be modified or discarded if it fails these tests. In its most idealized form, the scientific method begins with a set of observed facts. A fact is supposed to be a statement that is objectively true. For example, we consider it a fact that the Sun rises each morning, that the planet Mars appeared in a particular place in our sky last night, and that the Earth rotates. Facts are not always obvious, as illustrated by the case of the Earth's rotation. For most of human history, the Earth was assumed to be stationary at the center of the universe. In addition, our interpretations of facts often are based on beliefs about the world that others might not share. For example, when we say that the Sun rises each morning, we assume that it is the same Sun day after day-an idea that might not have been accepted by ancient Egyptians, whose mythology held that the Sun died with every sunset and was reborn with every sunrise. Nevertheless, facts are the raw material that scientific models seek to explain, so it is important that scientists agree on the facts. In the context of science, a fact must therefore be something that anyone can verify for himself or herself, at least in principle. Once the facts have been collected, a model can be proposed to explain them. A useful model must also make predictions that can be tested through further observations or experiments. Ptolemy's model of the universe was useful because it predicted future locations of the Sun, Moon, and planets in the sky. However, although the Ptolemaic model remained in use for nearly 1,500 years, eventually it became clear that its predictions didn't quite match actual obsemations-a key reason why the Earth-centered model of the universe finally was discarded.

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In summary, the idealized scientific method proceeds as follows: Observation: The scientific method begins with the collection of a set of observed facts. Hypothesis: A model is proposed to explain the observed facts and to make new predictions. A proposed model is often called a hypothesis, which essentially means an educated guess. Further observations/experimerzts: The model's predictions are tested through further observations or experiments. When a prediction is verified, we gain confidence that the model truly represents nature. When a prediction fails, we recognize that the model is flawed, and we therefore must refine or discard the model. Theory: A model must be continually challenged with new observations or experiments by many different scientists. A model achieves the status of a scientific theory only after a broad range of its predictions has been repeatedly verified. Note that, while we can have great confidence that a scientific theory truly represents nature, we can never prove a theory to be true beyond all doubt. Therefore, even well-established theories must be subject to continuing challenges through further observations and experiments. In reality, scientific discoveries rarely are made by a process as mechanical as the idealized scientific method described here. For example, Johannes Kepler, who discovered the laws of planetary motion in the early 1600s' tested his model against observations that had been made previously, rather than verifying new predictions based on his model. Moreover, like most scientific work, Kepler's work involved intuition, collaboration with others, moments of insight, and luck. Nevertheless, with hindsight we can look back at Kepler's theory and see that other scientists eventually made plenty of observations to verify the planetary positions predicted by his model. In that sense, the scientific method represents an ideal prescription for judging objectively whether a proposed model of nature is close to the truth.

Question References: "The Scientific Method" In brief, the modem scientific method is an organized approach to explaining observed facts, with a model of nature, subject to the constraint that any proposed model must be testable and the provision that the model must be modified or discarded if it fails these tests. In its most idealized form, the scientific method begins with a set of observed facts. )A A fact is supposed to be a statement that is objectively true. For example, we consider it a fact that the Sun rises each morning, that the planet Mars appeared in a particular place in our sky last night, and that the Earth rotates. Facts are not always o"F;;zus, as illustrated by the case of the Earth's rotation. For most of human history, the Earth was assumed to be stationary at the center of the universe. B addition, our interpretations of facts often are based on beliefs

471

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TOEFL MODEL TESTS

about the world that others might not share. For example, when we say that the Sun rises each morning, we assume that it is the same Sun day after day-an idea that might not have been accepted by ancient Egyptians, whose mythology held that the Sun died with every sunset and was reborn with every sunrise. Nevertheless, facts are the raw material that scientific models seek to explain, so it is important that scientists agree on the facts. I D n the context of science, a fact must therefore be something that anyone can verify for himself or herself, at least in principle. Once the facts have been collected, a model can be proposed to explain them. A useful model must also make predictions that can be tested through further observations or experiments. Ptolemy's model of the universe was useful because it predicted future locations of the Sun, Moon, and planets in the sky. However, although the Ptolemaic model remained in use for nearly 1,500 years, eventually it became clear that its predictions didn't quite match actual observations-a key reason why the Earth-centered model of the universe finally was discarded. Ln summary, the idealized scientific method proceeds as follows: Observation: The scientific method begins with the collection of a set of observed facts. Hypothesis: A model is proposed to explain the observed facts and to make new predictions. A proposed model is often called a hypothesis, which ? % ? X means w an educated guess. Further ohservations/experiments: The model's predictions are tested through further observations or experiments. When a prediction is verified, we gain confidence that the model truly represents nature. When a prediction fails, we recognize that the model is TawTd, and we therefore must refine or discard the model. T h e o ~A : model must be continually challenged with new observations or experiments by many different scientists. A model achieves the status of a scientific theory only after a broad range of its predictions has been repeatedly verified. Note that, while we can have great confidence that a scientific theory truly represents nature, we can never prove a theory to be true beyond ull doubt. Therefore, even well-established theories must be subject to continuing challenges through further observations and experiments.

--

-

?n reallty, s c i e 3 i i t 1 c ~ v e f i e rarely s are m m y a process as mechanical as the idealized scientific method described here. For example, Johannes Kepler, who discovered the laws of planetary motion in the early 1600s, tested his model against observations that had been made previously, rather than verifying new predictions based on his model. Moreover, like most scientific work, Kepler's work involved intuition, collaboration with others, moments of insight, and luck. Nevertheless, with hindsight we can look back at Kepler's theory and see that other scientists eventually made ' p m y ' of observations to verify the planetary positions predicted by his model. In that sense, the scientific method represents an ideal prescription for judging objectively whether a proposed model of nature is close to the truth.

14

GD interesting GD clear O simple a correct

2. Why did the author give the example of the ancient Egyptians in paragraph 2? GD To explain the rotation of the Earth and the Sun @

To prove that facts may be interpreted differently across cultures

O To present a fact that can be verified by the reader

To discard a model that was widely accepted

3. The word essenti'ally in the passage is closest in meaning to

GD obviously CD occasionally O basically CD oddly 4. The word flawed in the passage is closest in meaning to GD not perfect

CD not modem O not routine

a

not accepted

5. Which of the sentences below best expresses the information in the highlighted statement in the passage? The other choices change the meaning or leave out important information. GD An ideal form of the scientific method is explained in this passage. CD Making a discovery by using an ideal form of the scientific method is unusual. O The description of the scientific method is a mechanical process. O Here is an idealized description of the scientific process for scientific discovery.

6. According to paragraph 3, why was the Ptolemaic model replaced? The model was not useful in forecasting the movement of the Sun. CD The predictions did not conform to observations of the universe. O The Ptolemaic model had been in use for about 1,500 years. OD Most scientists believed that the Earth was the center of the universe. 7. According to paragraph 4, theories that are generally accepted

GD must still be verified GD have several models O can be unscientific C D are very simple

8. According to paragraph 5, what did Kepler do to verify his theory of planetary motion?

GD He made predictions based on the model. CD He asked other scientists to make predictions. O He used prior observations to test the model. CD He relied on insight to verify the theory.

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9. The word p e w in the passage is closest in meaning to

a broad reliable O detailed a numerous

10. A.11of the following statements are part of a definition of the term fact EXCEPT

a .A fact is objectively true. a A fact can be verified. O A fact may be interpreted.

a A fact must be comprehensible. 1 1. It may be concluded from information in this passage that a model '

a does not always reflect observations a is not subject to change like theories are O is considered true without doubt

a does not require further experimentation 12. Four squares (0) indicate where the following sentence can be added to the passage. Clearly, cultural orientation will influence the way that scientists will explain their observations. Where would the sentence best fit into the passage?

13. Complete a summary of the passage by choosing THREE answer choices that express the most important ideas. The other three sentences do not belong in the summary because they express ideas that are not in the passage or they are minor points that are not as important as the three major points. This question is worth 2points. Wlat are the three basic steps in the scientific method? Observational data collection a Proof without question O The testing of a hypothesis a Intuitive discoveries O A model that supports predictions 8 The general approval of a paradigm

To check your answers for the Reading Section of Model Test 9, refer to the Answer Key on page 497. For an explanation of the answers, refer to the Explanatory Answers for Model Test 9 on pages 683-685.

MODEL TEST 9

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Writing Section This is the Writing Section of the Next Generation TOEFL Model Test. This section tests your ability to write essays in English. During the test, you will write two essays. The independent essay usually asks for your opinion about a familiar topic. The integrated essay asks for your respvnse to an academic reading passage, a lecture, or both. You may take notes as you read and listen. You may use your notes to write the essays. If a lecture is included, it will be spoken, but the directions and the questions will be written. A clock on the screen will show you how much time you have to complete each essay.

Independent Writing: "Study in the United States" Directions: You have 30 minutes to plan, write, and revise your essay. Typically, a good response will require that you write a minimum of 300 words. Question: You are planning to study in the United States. What do you think you will like and dislike about this experience? Why? Use specific reasons and details to support your answer.

Notes Use this space for essay notes only. Work done on this work sheet will not be scored.

476

TOEFL MODEL TESTS

lnteqrated Writing: "Problem Solvinq" Directions: You have 20 minutes to plan, write and revise your response to a reading passage and a lecture on the same topic. First, read the passage below and take notes. Then, listen to the lecture and take notes. Finally, write your response to the writing question. Typically, a good response will require that you write 200-250 words. Solving a problem can be broken down into several steps. First, the problem must be identified correctly. Psychologists refer to this step as problem representation. For many problems, figuring out which information is relevant and which is extraneous can be difficult and can interfere with arriving at a good solution. Clearly, before a problem can be solved, it must be obvious what the problem is, however, this is not as easy as it might seem. One obstacle to efficient problem representation is functionalfixedness, that is, allowing preconceived notions and even prejudices to color the facts. Most people tend to see objects and events in certain fixed ways, and by being inflexible in viewing the problem, they may be unable to notice the tools for the solution. Once the problem is identified accurately, however, the second step consists of considering the alternatives for a solution. A common way to evaluate alternatives is to write them down and then make a list of advantages and disadvantages for each solution. Here again, people may be limited by prior experiences. Often people adopt mental sets that lead them to the same problem-solving strategies that were successful for problems in the past. Although that can be helpful most of the time, sometimes a new situation requires a different strategy. In that case, the mental set must be abandoned, and new alternatives must be explored. This can be a difficult adjustment for some people. After the alternatives have been compared, a strategy must be selected from among them. One way to avoid becoming mired in the options is to try the best option with a view to abandoning it for another if the results are unfavorable. This attitude allows many people to move on expeditiously to the next step-action. The strategy selected must be implemented and tested. If it solves the problem, no further action is necessary, but if not, then an unsuccessful solution may actually lead to a more successful option. If the solution is still not apparent, then the cycle begins again, starting with problem identification. By continuing to review the problem and repeat the problem-solving steps, the solution can be improved upon and refined.

Question: Summarize the main points in the lecture, referring to the way that they relate to the reading passage.

478

TOEFL MODEL TESTS

Notes Use this space for essay notes only. Work done on this work sheet will not be scored.

To check your answers for the Writing Section of Model Test 9, refer to the Checklists on page 497. For Example Answers, refer to the Explanatory Answers for Model Test 9 on pages 685-687.

MODEL TEST 9

Essay

ANSWER KEYS

ANSWER KEY-EXERCISES

Problem Problem Problem Problem Problem Problem Problem Problem

1 2 3 4 5 6 7

Part A (A) (C) (D) (D) (C) (A) (A)

Problem

8 (A)

Problem Problem Problem

9 (D) 10 (B) 11 (B)

Problem Problem Problem

12 (C) 13 (A) 14 (D)

Problem Problem

15 (B) 16 (B)

Problem Problem Problem

17 (A) 18 (A) 19 (C)

Problem Problem Problem Problem

20 21 22 23

Problem

24 (C)

Problem

25 (B)

(C) (B) (C) (B)

Part B (A) have (A) to evolve (B) smoking (B) permitting (A) saw (B) turris or will turn (C) will have to pay or may have to pay (C) unless they complete (B) be used (A) be (B) for making or to make (C) measured (A) It is believed (C) will have succeeded (B) is losing (D) should be discontinued (D) for them (A) which (C) eight or ten computers (A) Religion (A) Space (A) Progress (C) pieces of equipment (A) Spelling or To spell (A) %

Problem Problem Problem Problem

Part A 26 (A) 27 (D) 28 (C)

Problem Problem Problem Problem Problem Problem

29 30 31 32 33 34

(C) (A) (A) (B) (C) (A)

Problem Problem Problem Problem Problem Problem Problem

35 36 37 38 39 40 41

(C) (A) (C) (C) (C) (C) (A)

Problem Problem Problem

42 (B) 43 (C) 44 (D)

Problem Problem Problem

45 (B) 46 (D) 47 (B)

Problem Problem Problem

48 (C) 49 (C) 50 (B)

FOR STRUCTURE

483

Part B (A) The philosophy (B) no (A) Most of or Almost all of (A) Sex education (B) four-stage (B) so expensive (B) the same (D) like (B) differ from or are different from (A) as much as (A) more than (C) as many as (B) most (B) worse (A) the more intense (B) like that of England (B) besides (C) because (D) also easy to install (D) complete (C) the plane is (B) does the same major league baseball team win (A) since 1930 (B) as a whole (B)

x

484

ANSWER KEYS

Problem Problem Problem Problem Problem Problem Problem problem Problem Problem Problem Problem

Part A 1 (C) 2 (C)

3 (B) 4 (C)

5 (B) 6 (D) 7 (B) 8 (B) 9 (D) 10 (C) 1 1 (B)

Part B (C) were (B) gave (B) enables (A) is (A) There are (D)its (C) their (A) Having designed (C) find (B) to develop (D) to use as currency

Problem Problem Problem

Part A 12 (B) 13 (B)

Problem Problem Problem Problem Problem Problem Problem

14 (C)

15 (B) 16 (C) 17 (B) 18 (B) 19 (A) 20 (B)

Part B (B) rapidly (A) an old one or an ancient one (A) (A). raised (A) lies (B) sits (C) do (B) depends on (B) differ

ANSWER KEY-EXERCISES FOR READING

485

Problem 1. Previewing A black hole is a region of space created by the total g r a v i t - a ~ ~collapse ~a1 of matter. It is so intense that nothing, not even light or radiation, can escape. In other words, it is a one-way surface through which matter can fall inward but cannot emerge. Some astronomers believe that a black hole may be formed when a largeestaar_collapsesinward from weight. So long as they are emitting heat and light into space, stars support themselves against its own their own gravitational pull with the outward thermal pressure generated by heat from nuclear reactions deep in their interiors. But if a star eventually exhausts its nuclear fuel, then its unbalanced gravitational attraction could cause it to contract and collapse. Furthermore. it could begin to uull in surrounding mak ter-ncluding nearby comets and planets, creating a black hole.

Problem 2. Reading for Main Ideas For more than a century. despite attacks by a few opposing scientists. Charles Darwin's t h w r j ~ f evoluticmtt natural selection has stood firm. Now. however. some respected biologists are beginning to g&onxhether the theory accounts for ma_iordevelopments such as the shift from watecto land habiW n . Clearly, evolution has not proceeded steadily but has progressed by radical advances. Recent research in molecular biology, particularly in the study of DNA, provides us with a new possibility. Not only environmental changes but also genetic codes in the underlying structure of DNA could govern evolution. livu &r7lld~llr&kk)*

u A $ o

-a&uLOZcaxl

L 2 d h L - . Q e - ~ .w

//

(

Problem 3. Using Contexts for Vocabulary 1 . To auction means to sell. 2. Proprietor means an owner. 3. Formerly means in the past.

4. To sarnple means to try or to taste.

5. Royalty means payment.

Problem 4. Scanning for Details To prepare for a career in engineering, a student m

u

cial sciences. The @rage entering f r e s h m a i n engineering point average on a 4.0 scale in his or her high school. first year, the student who needs additional work complete a degree.

s

c

b

m

c

h d . Mathematics xteen credit hou3 are rechemistry, biology, and n the humanities and soat least 2.5 grade corrected during the of four years to

fi

486

ANSWER KEYS

1. What is the average grade point for an entering freshman in engineering?

2.5 2. When should a student begin planning for a career in engineering?

A+& 3. How can a student correct deficiencies in preparation?

-+

4. How rnany=d

a student have in English?

5. How many credits are required for a high school diploma?

bdhJ

Problem 5. Making Inferences When an acid is dissolved in water, the acid molecule divides into two parts, a hydrogen ion and another ion. An ion is an atom or a group of atoms which has an electrical charge. The charge can be either positive or negative. If hydrochloric acid is mixed with water, for example, it divides into hydrogen ions and chlorine ions. strong acid ionizes to a great extent, but a weak acid does not ionize so much) he strength of an acid, therefore, depends on how much it ionizes, not on how many hydrogen ions are interesting that nitric acid a n d a f u r i c acid become greatly ionizedwhereas(boric ac 1 acid do not. 4 1. What kind of acid is sulfuric acid?

2. What kind of acid is boric acid?

e&aCLdh&9do/rmLEA.ivna!h&

Problem 6. Identifying Exceptions All music consists of two elements--expression and design. Expression is inexact and subjective, and may be enjoyed in a personal or instinctive way. Design, on the other hand is exact and must be analyzed objectively in order to be understood and appreciated. The folk song, for example, has a defA folk inite musical design which relies on simple repetition with a definite. song generally consists of one stanza of music repeated for each stanza of verse. Because of their communal, and usually uncertain origin, folk songs are often popular verse set to music. They are not always recorded, and tend to be passed on in a kind of musical version of oral history. Each singer revises and perfects the song. In part as a consequence of this continuous revision process, most folk songs are almost perfect in their construction and design. A particular singer's interpretation of the folk song may provide an interesting expression, but the simple design that underlies the song itself is stable and enduring.

ANSWER KEY-EXERCISES

FOR READING

487

1. All of the following are true of a folk song EXCEPT J There is a clear start and finish. J The origin is often not known. The design may change in the interpretation. J Simple repetition is characteristic of its design.

Problem 7. Locating References The National Road, also known as the Cumberland Road, was constructed in the early 1800s to provide transportation between the established commercial areas of the East and Northwest Territory. By 1818, the road had reached Wheeling, West Virginia, 130 miles Line fromQpoint of origin in ~umb:rland, Maryland. The cost was a monumental thirteen thou(5) sand dollars per mile. Upon reaching the Ohio River, the National Road became one of the major trade routes to the western states and territories, providing Baltimore with a trade advantage over neighboring cities. In order to compete, New York state and Philadelphia initiated a transportation plan (10) rivers, canals, and the new National Road became important trade centers. 1. The word "its" in line 4 refers to 2. The word "it" in line 9 refers to

d. C&

Problem 8. Referring to the Passage

(15)

In September of 1929, traders experienced a lack of confidence in the stock market's abilW o continue its phenomenal rise. Prices fell. For many inexperienced investors. the drop produced a panic. They had all their money tied up in the market, and they were pressed to sell before the prices fell even lower. Sell orders were coming in so fast that the ticker tape at the New York Stock Exchange could not accommodate all the transactions. To try to reestablish confidence in the market, a powerful group of New York bankers agreed to pool their funds and purchase stock above current market values. Although the buy orders were minimal, they were counting on their reputations to restore confidence on the part of the smaller investors, thereby affecting the number of sell orders. On Thursday, October 24, Richard Whitney, the Vice President of the New York Stock Exchange and a broker for the J.P. Morgan Company, made the effort on their behalf. Initially. it appeared to have been successful, then, on the following Tuesday, the crash began again and accelerated. By 1932, stocks were worth only twenty percent of their value at the 1929 high. The results of the crash had extended into every aspect of the economy, causing a long and painful depression, referred to in American history as the Great Depression.

1.

Where in the passage does the author refer to the reason for the stock market crash? ;X-U

2.

Where in the passage does the author suggest that there was a temporary recovery in the stock . market?

Line (5)

(10)

-

/t'-/Z.

1- 3.

ANSWER KEYS

488

Section 1:Listening I . (C)' 2.(A) 3:(C)' 4.(A) 5.(A)

6. (B) 7.(D) 8.(C) 9.(D) 10.(C)

11 . (B)

12.(A) 13.(C) 14.(B) 15.(C)

16. (C) 17.(C) 18.(D). 19.(C) 20.(B)

21.(B) 22. (C) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25.(C)

26.(C) 27. (D) 28. (B) 29. (A) 30.(A)

13.(D) 14. (C) 15. (C) 16.(D)

17.(A) 18.(A) 19.(A) 20. (B)

21.(D) 22.(D) 23.(B) 24. (D)

31.(C) 32. (A) 33. (C) 34. (A) 35.(C)

36.(C) .41.(B) 46.(A) 37. (B) 42. (A) 47. (B) 38. (B) 43.(A)(C) 48. (C) 39. (A) 44. (B) 49. (B) 4O.(C)(D)45.(C) 50.(B)

Section 2: Structure l.(B) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4.(D)

5.(C) 6. (B) 7. (R) %(A)

9.(A) 10. (B) 11. (C) 12.(A)

'

25.(A)

Section 3: Reading 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9.

(B) (B) (D) (A) sentence 6, paragraph 1 (A) (B) (B) (c)

(A) (B) (A) (B) (B) "...invented dynamite. When he read.. 16. (D) lo. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

."

17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26.

(C) (A) (B) award (C) generally (D) (A) (B) (D)

27. 28. 29. 30. 3 1. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36.

Writing: Checklist for Essay The essay answers the topic question. The point of view or position is clear. The essay is direct and well-organized. The sentences are logically connected to each other. C I Details and examples support the main idea. CI The writer expresses complete thoughts. The meaning is easy for the reader to understand. A wide range of vocabulary is used. Various types of sentences are included. There are only minor errors in grammar and idioms. The general topic essay is within a range of 300-350 words.

(B) (B) (C) (C) brilliant tricks purpose (B) (B) (B) (D)

37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44.

(A) (C) large (B) (A) (B) (B) sentence 2, paragraph 3 45. (C)

ANSWER KEYS

488

Section 1:Listening 1 . 2. (A) 3.(C) 4.(A) 5.(A)

'

'

6.(B) 7. (D) 8.(C) 9.(D) 10.(C)

11.(B) 12. (A) 13.(C) 14.(B) 15.(C)

16.(C) 17. (C) 18.(D) 19.(C) 20.(B)

21. (B) 22. (C) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25.(C)

26. (C) 27. (D) 28. (B) 29. (A) 30.(A)

31.(C) 32.(A) 33. (C) 34. (A) 35. (C)

13.(D) 14. (C) 15. (C) 16.(D)

17.(A) 18.(A) 19.(A) 20. (B)

21.(D) 22.(D) 23.(B) 24. (D)

25. (A)

36.(C) 41.(B) 46.(A) 37.(B) 42.(A) 47.(B) 38. (B) 43.(A)(C) 48. (C) 39. (A) 44. (B) 49. (B) 40.(C)(D) 45. (C) 50. (B)

Section 2: Structure 1.(R) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4.(D)

5.(C) 6. (B) 7. (B) 8.(A)

9.(A) 10. (B) 11. (C) 12.(A)

Section 3: Reading 1.

2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9.

(B) (B)

(D) (A) sentence 6, paragraph 1 (A) (B) (B) (c)

lo. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

(A) (B) (A) (B) (B) "...invented dynamite. When he read. 16. (D)

.."

17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26.

(C) (A) (B) award (C) generally (D) (A) (B) (D)

27. 28. 29. 30. 3 1. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36.

Writing: Checklist for Essay CI The essay answers the topic question. The point of view or position is clear. 0 The essay is direct and well-organized. The sentences are logically connected to each other. Details and examples support the main idea. 0 The writer expresses complete thoughts. The meaning is easy for the reader to understand. ill A wide range of vocabulary is used. O Various types of sentences are included. There are only minor errors in grammar and idioms. The general topic essay is within a range of 300-350 words.

(B) (B) (C) (C) brilliant tricks purpose (B) (B) (B) (D)

37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44.

(A) (C) large (B) (A) (B) (B) sentence 2, paragraph 3 45. (C)

ANSWER KEY-MODEL TESTS

489

Section 1:Listening 1. (B) 2.(D)

7.(B) 8.(A) 3.(D) 9.(C) 4.(B) 10.(A) 5.(D) ll.(B) 6.(A) 12.(D)

13.(D) 14.(C) 15.(A) 16.(B) 17.(B) 18.(B)

19.(A) 20.(A) 21.(C) 22.(B) 23.(C) 24.(B)

25.(B) 26.(D) 27.(C) 28.(B) 29.(D) 30.(B)

31.(C) 37.(C) 32.(B) 38.(B) 33.(C) 39.(D) 34.(D) 40.(A) 35.(B) 41.(C) 36.(A)(B)42.(C)

43.(A) . 44.(A)(B)

49.(B)(A)(C) 50.(A)

45.(C)

46.(C)(D) 47.(B) 48.(C)

Section 2: Structure l.(A) 2.(A) 3.(C) 4.(D)

5.(C) 9.(A) 6.(B) lO.(A) 7.(A) 11.(B) 8.(C) 12.(A)

13.(A) 17.(C) 21.(A) 25.(B) 14.(B) 18.(C) 22.(A) 15.(D) 19.(A) 23.(B) 16.(C) 20.(C) 24.(B)

Section 3: Reading 1. (A)

2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

(c) (A) (A) (D) (A)

(Dl

8. data 9. (c) 10. problems 11. sentence 2,

12. (C) 13. (D) 14. sentence 4, paragraph 1 15. (A) 16. (B) 17. (D) 18. signs 19. (B) 20. (C)

21. "...a rude noise. Gestures such as

..."

22. (B) 23. interaction 24. (D) 25. (D) 26. (D) 27. (B) 28. (B)

29. (C) 30. (A) 31. (C) 32. sentence 5, paragraph 3

33. damage 34. "...solids or liquids. One objection..

."

35. (A) 36. (D)

paragraph 2

Writing: Checklist for Essay 0 The essay answers the topic question. 0 The point of view or position is clear. 0 The essay is direct and well-organized. The sentences are logically connected to each other. O Details and examples support the main idea. The writer expresses complete thoughts. U The meaning is easy for the reader to understand. A wide range of vocabulary is used. Various types of sentences are included. There are only minor errors in grammar and idioms. O The general topic essay is within a range of 300-350words.

37. (B) 38. (A) 39. (A) 40. (C) 41. (B) 42. (C) 43. sentence 3, paragraph 1 44. tamed 45. (A)

490

ANSWER KEYS

Section 1: Listening 1. (A) 2. ( c ) 3. ( c ) 4.(A) 5. (A) 6. (A) 7. ( c )

,

.

8. ( c ) 9. @> 10. (B) 11.(A) 12. (A) 13. (D) 14.(A)

15.(C) 16. (A) 17.(B) 18.(D) 19. (B) 20. (B) 21.(C)

22.(B) 23. (C) 24.(C) 25.(A) 26. (A) 27. (B) 28.(B)

29.(B) 30. (A) 31.(C) 32.(B) 33. (B) 34.(D) 35.(C)

36.(B) 37. (A) 38.(B)(C) 39.(C)(B) (DNA) 40.(B) 41.(A)

42.(D) 43. (A) 44.(B) 45.(B) 46. (C) 47.(D) 48.(D)

49.(A)(C) 50. (A)

Section 2: Structure 1. (C) 2. (B) 3.(A) 4.(B)

5. (B) 6. (A) 7.(C) 8.(D)

9. (C) 10. (A) 11.(C) 12.(B)

13. (B) 14. (B) 15.(D) 16.(C)

17. (B) 18. (B) 19.(A) 20.(A)

21. (C) 22. (A) 23.(C) 24.(A)

25. (D)

Section 3: Reading 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

(A) (Dl (C) (D) very successful 6. (A) 7. ( c ) 8. (D) 9. sentence 4, paragraph 2

10. 11. 12. 13. 14.

(C) (C) (A) (B) (C) 15. (C) 16. @) 17. (D) 18. (C) 19. (A) 20. devastating

2 1. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31.

earthquakes (I))

(B) segmented (C) (A) (A) (B) (C) (A) (C)

32. "...other life forms. Although some insects..." 33. (D) 34. (D) 35. (D) 36. (B) 37. locomotion 38. (C)

Writing: Checklist for Essay 0 The essay answers the topic question. 17 The point of view or position is clear.

CI 0

CI C I

The essay is direct and well-organized. The sentences are logically connected to each other. Details and examples support the main idea. The writer expresses complete thoughts. The meaning is easy for the reader to understand. A wide range of vocabulary is used. Various types of sentences are included. There are only minor errors in grammar and idioms. The general topic essay is within a range of 300-350 words.

39. 40. 41. 42. 43.

(C) (C) (A) (A) sentence 2, paragraph 4 44. (A) 45. (C)

ANSWER KEY-MODEL TESTS

491

Section 1: Listening 6.(C) 7.(B) 2.(A) 3.(A) 8.(C) 4.(B) 9.(A) 5.(D) lo.(B)

I. (C)

31.(D) 32.(A) 33.(C) 34.(A) 35.(C)

16.(D) 17.(~)' 18.(B) 19.(C) 20.(D)

21.(D) 22.(D) 23.(A) 24.(D) 25.(B)

26.(B) 27.(D) 28.(B) 29.(B) 30.(C)

9.(B) 13.(B) 10.(C) 14.(D) 11.(D) 15.(C) l2.(C) 16.(A)

17.(D) 18.(C) 19.(C) 20.(D)

21.(D) 25.(D) 22.(A) 23.(B) 24.(D)

11. (A) 12.(D) 13.(A) 14.(A) 15.(C)

36.(C) 37.(D) 38.(D) 39.(C) 40.(C)

41.(D) 46.(B) 42.(A)(C)47.(D) 43.(B) 48.(D) 44.(B) 49.(C) 45.(C) 50.(R)

Section 2: Structure 1. (D) 2.(B)

3.(C) 4.(D)

5.(B) 6.(A) 7.(B) 8.(C)

Section 3: Reading 1. (A) 2.(C) 3.(B) 4. (A) 5.(B) 6.(c) 7.sentence 2,

paragraph 2 8. (D) 9. (B) 10. (A)

11. (B) 12.(D) 13.(C) 14.sentence 5, paragraph 1 15.(A) 16.better 17.(D) 18.(D) 19.(A) 20.(C)

21.(D) 22.(B) 23.valued 24.(C) 25.(A) 26.(D) 27.(C) 28.(A) 29.(B) 30.(D) 31.(B)

32.(C) 33."...fragrant

40.the English

blossoms. Other Acacia..

41.(A) 42.sentence 1,

."

34.(A) 35.(C) 36.(B) 37.(A) 38.(C) 39.(C)

Writing: Checklist for Essay 0 The essay answers the topic question. The point of view or position is clear. 0 The essay is direct and well-organized. 0 The sentences are logically connected to each other. Details and examples support the main idea. 0 The writer expresses complete thoughts. The meaning is easy for the reader to understand. A wide range of vocabulary is used. 3 Various types of sentences are included. There are only minor errors in grammar and idioms. U The general topic essay is within a range of 300-350 words.

King's

paragraph 4

43.(B) 44.(B) 45.(D)

492

ANSWER KEYS

Section 1:Listening 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9lo.

(Dl (B) (C) (B) (B) (C) * (A) (B) (Dl (A) a

11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.

(C) (C) (B)(C) (C) (D)(C)(B)(A) (C) (A)(B) (A) (C) (C)

31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.

(A)(B)(C)(D) (B) (D) (D) (A) (B)(A)(C) (A)(C) (B)(C) (C) (C)

41. 42. 43. 44. 4546. 47. 48. 49. 50.

(D) (Dl (A) (A) (C)

11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

(B) (D) (C) (D) (B)

16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

(A) (C) (C) (A) (C)

21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

(C) (B) (A) architecture (B) (C) (A)

20. sentence 7, paragraph 3 21. (D) 22. (C) 23. (D) 24. (B) 25, works 26. (A) 27. maintained 28. (B)

29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38.

(B) (A) (C) (B) (B) (C) (A) (A) complex the memory

39. 40. 41. 42.

(C) (B) (B) (B) (D) (C) (A) (B) (D) (A)

(C) (C) (A) (C) (A)(B) (C) (C) (C) (D) (B)

Section 2: Structure 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

(D) (B)

(Dl (A) (c)

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

(C)

(B) (C) (B) (C)

Section 3: Reading 1. (A)

2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

(c) (D) (B) (A) increased sentence 1, paragraph 3 8. (A) 9. (B)

10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19.

(B) (A) shapes

Writing: Checklist for Essay The essay answers the topic question. The point of view or position is clear. R The essay is direct and well-organized. The sentences are logically connected to each other. Details and examples support the main idea. The writer expresses complete thoughts. The meaning is easy for the reader to understand. 17 A wide range of vocabulary is used. Various types of sentences are included. R There are only minor errors in grammar and idioms. 17 The general topic essay is within a range of 300-350 words.

(B) (B) (C) sentence 1, paragraph 3 43. (A) 44. (B) 45. (A)

ANSWER KEY-MODEL TESTS

493

Section 1:Listening 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. LO.

(B) (B) (C) (C) (C) (C) (B) (C) (A) (B)

11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

(B) (C) (C) (D) (A) (C) (A) (D) (B) (A)

21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.

(A)(D) (B) (B)(D) (A) (C) (A) (C) (A)(C) (B) (B)

31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.

(C) (A) (B) (C) (A) (B) (A)(D) (B) (C) (B)(C)

41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.

(C)(A)(B) (C) (B) (C) (B) (B) (A) (B) (A) (B)(D)

11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

(C) (C) (C) (D) (C)

16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

(B) (C) (B) (C) (C)

21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

(A) (B) (B) (B) (C)

21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.

(D) (D) (A) (D) the viruses (D) (B) (C) (B) types

3 1. "...for typeB virus. Approximately every 32. (B) 33. (C) 34. (B) 35. (A) 36. (D) 37. (B) 38. (B)

Section 2: Structure 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

(B) (D) (B) (Dl

(D)

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

( 0 (A) (c) (D) (C)

Section 3: Reading (B) (B) about (A) sentence 1, paragraph 2 6- ( 0 7. (c) 8. (B) 9. (B) lo. (A) 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16.

(A) (A) (B) (C) (B) sentence 4, paragraph 2 17. guiding 18. (c) 19. (C) 20. (A)

Writing: Checklist for Essay 0 The essay answers the topic question. The point of view or position is clear. The essay is direct and well-organized. The sentences are logically connected to each other. CI Details and examples support the main idea. 17 The writer expresses complete thoughts. CI The meaning is easy for the reader to understand. A wide range of vocabulary is used. 17 Various types of sentences are included. There are only minor errors in grammar and idioms. The general topic essay is within a range of 300-350 words.

..."

39. (C) 40. (B) 4 1. coins and Paper currency 42. sentence 3, paragraph 3 43. (C) 44. (Dl 45. "...policy makers. In fact, the Fed..."

494

ANSWER KEYS

Section 1: Listening 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. lo.

(A) (B) (C) (A) , (B) (B) (B) (C) (Dl (D) #

11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

(D) (A) (D) (C) (A) (D) (B) (A) (B) (C)

21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.

(C) (C) (A)(C) (B) (C) (A) (A) (C)(B)(A) (B)(D) (A)

31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.

(B) 41. (B)(C) (B)(C) 42. (B) (D)(A)(C)(B) 43. (B) (C) 44. (A) (A) 45. (B)(C) 46. (B) (C) (A) 47. (A) (C) 48. (B) (C) 49. (B)(C) 50. (D) (A)

11. (B) 12. (a) 13. (D) 14. (A) 15. (A)

16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

(A) (B) (D) (D) (A)

19. sentence 2, paragraph 4 20. (A) 21. (C) 22. (A) 23. (A) 24. (A) 25. (B) 26. (C) 27. (B) 28. increase 29. the noise

30. 3 1. 32. 33.

(B) (B) (C) "...before they are born. Fetuses exposed (C) (Dl (B) crude

Section 2: Structure 1. (B)

2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (Dl 5. (B)

6. 7. 8. 9. lo.

(A) (A) (B) (B) (D)

21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

(B) (A) (A) (B) (C)

Section 3: Reading 1. (B) 2. eliminate 3. ( 0 4. sentence 2, paragraph 2 5. (c) 6. (B) 7. (B) 8. (B) 9. (A) lo. (A)

I I . "...was vaccinated. The number of. 12. (C) 13. ideal 14. (B) 15. (B) 16. (C) 17. (C) 1 8. of the single people

.."

..."

34. 35. 36. 37.

Writing: Checklist for Essay 17

The essay answers the topic question. The point of view or position is clear. C1 The essay is direct and well-organized. 0 The sentences are logically connected to each other. Details and examples support the main idea. 0 The writer expresses complete thoughts. The meaning is easy for the reader to understand. A wide range of vocabulary is used. Various types of sentences are included. There are only minor errors in grammar and idioms. 0 The general topic essay is within a range of 300-350 words.

the shorter growing season (D) (B) (A) (C) (A) (D)

ANSWER KEY-MODEL

TESTS

495

Section 1: Listeni~ig 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. lo.

(A) (C) (A) (C) (B) (C) (C) (C) (Dl (A)

11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.

(C) (C) (C) (B) (D) (A) (B) (C) (A) (C)

(B)

(D) (C) (A) (C)

31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.

(B) (D)(A)(C)(B) (C)(D) (A)(C) (A) (C) (B)(C) (A) (C) (B)(D)

41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.

(C) (B) (A) (D) (C) (B)(C) (A) (C) (C)

(D) (D) (D) (D) (D)

16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

(D) (D) (C) (B) (C)

21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

(C) (D)

(B) (C) (C) (A)

(B)

Section 2: Structure 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

(c) (D) (c) (Dl (D)

6. 7. 8. 9. lo.

(A) (B) (A) (A) (A)

11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

(C) (A) (C)

Section 3: Reading 1. (D)

2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. lo. 11. 12.

(B) (c) (A) (B) earthquakes (A) basically (B) (D) (C) (B)

13. (B) 14. clash of keys 15. (D) 16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (A) 19. (D) 20. (D) 2 1 . Concord Sonata

...

22. "...in only two decades. Even during such..." 23. (C) 24. (B) 25. huge 26. (C) 27. (D) 28. (A) 29. (A) 30. (C)

3 1. sentence 6, paragraph 2 32. bats 33. "...highly social creatures. Aggregation during 34. (B) 35. (B) 36. live 37. (A)

Writing: Checklist for Essay

0 0 0

The essay answers the topic question. The point of view or position is clear. The essay is direct and well-organized. The sentences are logically connected to each other. Details and examples support the main idea. The writer expresses complete thoughts. The meaning is easy for the reader to understand. A wide range of vocabulary is used. Various types of sentences are included. There are only minor errors in grammar and idioms. The general topic essay is within a range of 300-350 words.

..."

38. 39. 40. 41. 42.

(A) (C) area (C) sentence 1, paragraph 3 43. (A) 44. (D) 45. (A)

496

ANSWER KEY

Listening: Independent Listening 1-6 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. lo.

CB) (C) (A) (C) (B) (D) . (B) (B) (D) (B) a

11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

(C) (B)(C) (C) (C) (A) YES (B) NO (C) YES (D) (B) (C) (C) (B) (D)

Speaking: Checklist for Questions 1 and 2 0 R R R R

The talk answers the topic question. The point of view or position is clear. The talk is direct and well-organized. The sentences are logically connected to each other. Details and exampIes support the main idea. The speaker expresses complete thoughts. The meaning is easy for the listener to comprehend. A wide range of vocabulary is used. There are only minor errors in grammar and idioms. The talk is within a range of 125-1 50 words.

Speaking: Checklist for Questions 3,4, 5 , 6 U The talk answers the topic question. R R

0 R

D

There are only minor inaccuracies in the content. The talk is direct and well-organized. The sentences are logically connected to each other. Details and examples support the main idea. The speaker expresses complete thoughts. The meaning is easy for the listener to comprehend. A wide range of vocabulary is used. The speaker paraphrases, using his or her own words. The speaker credits the lecturer with wording when necessary. There are only minor errors in grammar and idioms. The talk is within a range of 125-150 words.

21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.

(A) (B) (C) (B) (A) (B) (D) (B) @) (A) (C) (B)

ANSWER KEY-MODEL TESTS

Reading: lndependent Reading 1 6. 7. 8. 9.

(Dl (A) (C) (B) lo. (C)

1 1 . (A) 12. (A) 1 3. (A) (C) (El

Reading: lndependent Reading 2 1 1 . (C) 12. (B) 13. (B) (El(F)

Reading: lndependent Reading 3 6. 7. 8. 9.

(B)

(A) (C)

(Dl

lo. (D)

Writing: Checklist for lndependent Writing 0 The essay answers the topic question. The point of view or position is clear. The essay is direct and well-organized. U The sentences are logically connected to each other. CI Details and examples support the main idea. The writer expresses complete thoughts. 0 The meaning is easy for the reader to understand. A wide range of vocabulary is used. O Various types of sentences are included. There are only minor errors in grammar and idioms. 0 The general topic essay is within a range of 300-350 words.

Writing: Checklist for Integrated Writing 0 The essay answers the topic question. There are only minor inaccuracies in the content. CI The essay is direct and well-organized for the topic. 0 The sentences are logically connected to each other. Details and examples support the main idea. 0 The writer expresses complete thoughts. 0 The meaning is easy for the reader to comprehend. A wide range of vocabulary is used. 0 The writer paraphrases, using his or her own words. The writer credits the author with wording when necessary. 0 There are only minor errors in grammar and idioms. The academic topic essay is within a range of 200-250 words.

11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (A) (C) (El

497

EXPLANATORY ANSWERS AND AUDIO SCRIPTS

MODEL TEST 1-COMPUTER-ASSISTED TOEFL

501

NOTE The Explanatory Answers include the transcript for the Listening Sections of the TOEFL Model Tests included in this book. Note that the Listening Sections always appear as Section 1 of the examinations. When you take the Model Tests in this book as a preliminary step in your preparation for the actual examination, you should use either the CD-ROM, the compact disks, or the cassette tapes that supplement this book. If you use a CD-ROM, you will see visuals on your computer screen. If you use compact disks, you will hear the audio, but you will not see the visuals. If you have someone read the TOEFL transcript to you, be sure that he or she understands the timing sequences. The reader should work with a stopwatch or with a regular watch with a second hand in order to keep careful track of the timed pauses between questions. The time for the pauses between questions is about 10 seconds. Be sure that the reader speaks clearly and at a moderately paced rate. For results that would be closest to the actual testing situation, it is recommended that three persons be asked to read, since some of the Listening Sections include dialogues.

Section 1: Listening The Listening Section of the test measures the ability to understand conversations and talks in English. On the actual TOEFL exam, you will use headphones to listen to the conversations and talks. While you are listening, pictures of the speakers or other information will be presented on your computer screen. There are two parts to the Listening Section, with special directions for each part. On the day of the test, the amount of time you will have to answer all of the questions will appear on the computer screen. The time you spend listening to the test material will not be counted. The listening material and questions about it will be presented only one time. You will not be allowed to take notes or have any paper at your computer. You will both see and hear the questions before the answer choices appear. You can take as much time as you need to select an answer; however, it will be to your advantage to answer the questions as quickly as possible. You may change your answer as many times as you want before you confirm it. After you have confirmed an answer, you will not be able to return to the question. Before you begin working on the Listening Section, you will have an opportunity to adjust the volume of the sound. You may not be able to change the volume after you have started the test.

QUESTION DIRECTIONS-Part A In Part A of the Listening Section, you will hear short conversations between two people. In some of the conversations, each person speaks only once. In other conversations, one or both of the people speak more than once. Each conversation is followed by one question about it. Each question in this part has four answer choices. You should click on the best answer to each question. Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers.

502

EXPLANATORY ANSWERS AND AUDIO SCRIPTS

Audio 1. Woman: Man: Narrator:

If I were you I'd take the bus to school. Driving in that rush-hour traffic is temble. But by the time the bus gets to my stop, there aren't any seats left. What is the man's problem?

Answer (C) Since the man says that there aren't any seats left, it must be concluded that he has to stand when he takes the bus to school. Choice (B) refers to the woman's suggestion, not to the man's responge. Choices (A) and (D) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio 2 . Woman: Man: Woman: Man: Narrator:

advisor is teaching it I'd like to take Dr. Sullivan's section of Physics 100, budmy / too, and I don't want her to be offended. Who cares? Well, I don't want to get on her bad side. I wouldn't wony about it. What does the man mean?

Answer (A) Who cares means that it "isn't important" [that her advisor might be offended]. Choices (B) and (D) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Choice (C) refers to the woman's concern, not to the man's response. Audio 3. Man: Woman: Narrator:

Let's go to the dance at the Student Center on Friday. Sounds great, but I'm going to a lecture. Thanks for asking me though. What does the woman imply?

Answer (C) Because the woman says that the invitation sounds "great" and she thanks the man for aslung her, it must be concluded that she would go out with the man on another occasion. Choice (A) is not correct because she responds so positively while refusing the invitation. Choices (B) and (D) are not correct because she has plans to attend a lecture. Audio 4. Man: Woman: Man: Woman : Narrator:

That's a nice bike. I got it almost five years ago. You did? It looks new. Yes, it's still in really good shape. What does the woman mean?

Answer (A) In good shape is an idiomatic expression that means the item is "in good condition." Choice (B) is not correct because the man thinks the bike is new, and the woman says it is in good shape. Choice (C) is not correct because the speakers are talking about a bike that is able to be seen. Choice (D) is not correct because the woman got the bike almost five years ago. Audio 5 . Woman: Man: Narrator:

Would you like some hot coffee or tea? I like them both, but I'd rather have something cold. What does the man want to drink?

MODEL TEST 1--COMPUTER-ASSISTED TOEFL

503

Answer ( A )The man says that he would rather have something cold. Choices (B), (C), and (D) refer to what the man likes, not to what he wants. Audio 6 . woman: Man: Narrator:

How can I get to the shopping center from here? Not the one on campus. The one downtown. You can take a bus or a taxi, but it isn't too far to walk. What does the man suggest the woman do?

Answer (B) ". . . it isn't too far to walk [to the shopping center]." Choice (A) is not correct because he is already giving the woman information about the shopping center. Choices (C) and (D) are alternative possibilities that the man mentions before making his suggestion. Audio 7. Man: Woman: Narrator:

Have you found a class yet? I'm just checking the schedule now. What can be inferred about the woman?

Answer (D) Since the woman says that she is just checking the schedule now, it must be concluded that she has not registered yet. Choice (A) is not correct because she is checking the schedule for a class. Choices (B) and (C) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio 8. Woman: Man: Narrator:

Do you mind if I turn on the radio for a while? No, I don't m.ind. What does the man mean?

Answer ( C ) To not mind is an idiomatic expression that means the speaker will "not be bothered" by an activity or situation. Choices (A), (B), and (D) are not paraphrases of the expression. Audio 9. Man: Woman: Narrator:

I'm worried about Anna. She's really been depressed lately. All she does is stay in her room all day. That sounds serious. She'd better see someone at the Counseling Center. What does the woman suggest Anna do?

Answer (D) "She'd better see someone at the Counseling Center." Choices (A), (B), and (C) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio 10. Woman: Man: Narrator:

If you have a few minutes, I'd like to talk with you about my project. Please go on. What does the man mean?

Answer ( C ) Please go on is an idiomatic expression that means the speaker wants the other person to "continue." Choices (A), (B), and (D) are not paraphrases of the expression.

504

EXPLANATORY ANSWERS AND AUDIO SCRIPTS

Audio 11. Woman: Man: Narrator:

Excuse me. I was in line here first. Oh, I'm sorry. I didn't realize that you were waiting. What will the man probably do?

Answer (B) Since the man apologizes for going ahead of the woman in line, he will most probably allow her to go ahead of him. Choice (A) is not correct because it is the man, not the woman, who apologizes. Choice (C) is not correct because he has already apologized. Choice (D) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio 12. Man: Woman: Narrator:

The neighbors are going to have another party. Not again! What does the woman imply?

Answer ( A )Not again is an idiomatic expression that means the speaker is impatient with some kind of repeated behavior or activity. Choice (C) is not correct because she does not know about the party until the man informs her. Choices (B) and (D) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio 13. Man: Woman: Man: Woman: Narrator:

You mean Dr. Franklin said you couldn't have an extension? He said it was not his policy. Really? Yes, so now I have to work over the holiday weekend. What had the man assumed?

Answer ( C ) Since the man says "Really?" it must be concluded that he is surprised by the professor's response to the woman's request. Choice (D) is not correct because the professor says it was not his policy. Choices (A) and (B) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio 14. Man: Woman: Narrator:

We really should have left already. Maybe we ought to call and let them know. What problem do the man and woman have?

Answer (B) Since the man says that they should have left already, it must be concluded that they are late. Choice (A) is not likely because of the woman's suggestion that they make a call. Choices (C) and (D) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio 15. Man: Woman: Narrator:

Have you moved out of your apartment yet? No. I'm paid up until the 15th. What is the woman probably going to. do?

EL TEST 1--COMPUTER-ASSISTED TOEFL

505

Answer ( C ) Since the woman says that she has her rent paid until the 15th, she will probably stay where she is living until the 15th. The reference to half a month in Choice (A) refers to the fact that the woman already has her rent paid until the 15th, not to what she will do. Choice (B) is not correct because the woman, not the man, is planning to move. Choice (D) is not correct because the woman mentions having her rent paid. Audio 16. Woman: Man: Narrator:

Mary Anne took the math placement test. So, shefinally did it! What had the man assumed about Mary Anne?

Answer (C) Since the man expresses surprise, it must be concluded that he thought she had not taken the placement test. Choice (A) is not correct because the man was surprised. Choices (B) and (D) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio 17. Woman: Man: Narrator:

Where have you been? I haven't seen you in class all week. I caught cold, so I stayed in. What does the man mean?

Answer (C) To catch cold is an idiomatic expression that means to "get sick." Choices (A), (B), and (D) are not paraphrases of the expression and may not be concluded from information in the conversation.

QUESTION DIRECTIONS-Part B In Part B of the Listening Section, you will hear several longer conversations and talks. Each conversation or talk is followed by several questions. The conversations, talks, and questions will not he repeated. The conversations and talks are about a variety of topics. You do not need special knowledge of the topics to answer the questions correctly. Rather, you should answer each question on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in the conversations or talks. For most of the questions, you will need to click on the best of four possible answers. Some questions will have special directions. The special directions will appear in a box on the computer screen.

Audio Conversation Narrator: Listen to a conversation with a professor. Man: Woman: Man: Woman: Man:

Woman: Man: Woman:

Professor Day, may I see you for a minute? Sure. Come on in, Mike. What's the matter? I've got a problem. Okay. I need your technical writing class. And, I knew I had to have it so I went early to registration, but by the time I got to the front of the line, it was closed. See, my advisor signed my course request and everything. 1was just too far back in the line. That's a big class already, Mike. If it's closed, that means I have fifty students in it. I'm not surprised. It's supposed to be a really good class. Can't you take it next year? We offer it every fall.

506

EXPLANATORY ANSWERS AND AUDIO SCRIPTS

Man: Woman: Man:

Well, that's the problem. I'm supposed to be graduating this spring. But, of course, I can't graduate without your class. I see. In that case, 1'11 sign an override for you. It looks like there will be fifty-one. Take this form back to the registration area and they'll get you in. Thanks, Professor Day. I really appreciate this! Now get ready to answer the questions

Audio 18. What is Mike's problem? Answer @) "I need your technical writing class. . . . In that case, I'll sign an override for you." Choice (A) is not correct because he went early to registration. Choice (B) 's not correct because his advisor signed his course request. Choice (C) is not correct because th course will not be taught until fall semester.

L

Audio 19. What does Mike want Professor Day to do? Answer ( C ) "...I'll sign an override. . . . Take this form back to the registration area and they'll get you in." Choice (D) refers to something that the professor tells Mike to do, not to something that Mike wants the professor to do. Choices (A) and (B) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio 20. What does Mike say about graduation? Answer ( B ) " . . . I can't graduate without your class." Choice (A) is not correct because he plans to graduate in the spring. Choices (C) and (D) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio 21. What does Professor Day decide to do? Answer

(B) ". . . 1'11 sign an override for you." Choice (A) refers to the suggestion that the professor makes at the beginning of the conversation, not to what she actually decides to do. Choices (C) and (D) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio Talk Narrator: Listen to a talk by a business instructor.

Today's lecture is about the effects of background music on employee performance and retail sales. As you know, every day millions of people in offices and factories around the world do their work to the accompaniment of background music, more commonly known as MUZAK. But did you know that MUZAK is more than a pleasant addition to the environment? Studies show that this seemingly innocent background music can be engineered to control behavior. In fact, MUZAK can improve employee performance by reducing stress, boredom, and fatigue. In one survey, overall productivity increased by thirty percent, although five to ten percent is the average.

MODEL TEST 1--COMPUTER-ASSISTED TOEFL

507

The key to MUZAK's success is something called stimulus progression, which means quite simply that the background music starts with a slow, soft song that is low in stimulus value and builds up gradually to an upbeat song that is high in stimulus value. The fastest, loudest sounds are programmed for about ten-thirty in the morning and two-thirty in the afternoon when people are generally starting to tire. Besides employee performance, MUZAK can increase sales. In supermarkets, slow music can influence shoppers to walk dower and buy more. In restaurants, fast music can cause customers to eat quickly so that the same number of tables may be used to serve more people during peak times such as the lunch hour. Now get ready to answer the questions

Audio 22. What is MUZAK? Answer ( C ) ". . . background music, more commonly known as MUZAK." Choice (A) is one kind of MUZAK, but i t is not correct because MUZAK can be upbeat songs, too. Choice (B) is one place where MUZAK is played, but it is not correct because MUZAK can be played in the workplace and the supermarket, too. Choice (D) is not correct because MUZAK is more than a pleasant addition to the environment. Audio 23. What is the average increase in productivity when MUZAK is introduced? Answer (B) "In one survey, overall productivity increased by thirty percent, although five to ten percent is the average." Choice (D) refers to one survey, not to the average. Choices (A) and (C) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the talk. Audio 24. What is stimulus progression? Answer

( D ) ". . . stimulus progression . . . starts with a slow, soft song . . . and builds u p . . . to an upbeat song . . . programmed . . . when people are generally starting to tire." Choice (A) refers to the first stage of stimulus progression, not to the total progression. Choices (B) and (C) refer to varieties of MUZAK, not to stimulus progression.

Audio 25. How does MUZAK influence sales in supermarkets? Answer ( C ) "In supermarkets, slow music can influence shoppers to walk slower and buy more." Choice (D) is not correct because it can influence shoppers to buy more. Choices (A) and (B) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the talk. Audio Announcement Narrator: Listen to a public service announcement. Community College understands that everyone who wants to attend college will not be able to come to campus. So, as part of the Distance Learning Program, Community College offers a

508

EXPLANATORY ANSWERS AND AUDIO SCRIPTS

series of video telecourses to meet the needs of students who prefer to complete coursework in their homes, at their convenience. These telecourses are regular college credit classes taught on videocassette tapes by a Community College professor. To use the materials for the course, you will need your own VHStype VCR player. Some telecourses will also be broadcast on KCC7-TV's "Sun-Up Semester." This program airs from six o'clock in the morning to seven-thirty, Monday through Friday, and a complete listing of courses is printed in your regular television guide. To register for a telecourse, phone the Community College Distance Learning Program at 782-6394. The course syllabus, books, and videotapes will be available at the Community College bookstore. During the first week of classes, your instructor will contact you to discuss the course and answer any questions you might have about the course requirements. Then, throughout the rest of the semester, you can use either an 800 telephone number or an e-mail address to contact your instructor. Now get ready to answer the questions

Audio 26. What is this announcement mainly about? Answer ( C ) " . . . Community College offers a series of video telecourses to meet the needs of students who prefer to complete coursework in their homes." Choices (A) and (B) are secondary themes used to develop the main theme of the talk. Choice (D) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio 27. Why does the speaker mention the "Sun-Up Semester"? Answer ( D ) "Some telecourses will also be broadcast on KCC7-TV's 'Sun-Up Semester."' Choice (A) is not correct because students should call the Community College Distance Learning Program to register. Choice (C) is not correct because a listing of courses is printed in the television guide. Choice (B) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio 28. How can students register for a course? Answer ( B ) "To register for a telecourse, phone the Community College . . . ." Choice (A) is not correct because the program is designed to meet the needs of students who are not able to come to campus. Choices (C) and (D) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio 29. How can students contact the instructor? Answer ( A ) ". . . you can use either an 800 telephone number or an e-mail address to contact your instructor." Choices (B), (C), and (D) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation.

MODEL TEST 1--COMPUTER-ASSISTEDTOEFL

509

Audio Conversation Listen to part of a conversation between two friends on campus. Narrator: Donna: Bill: Donna: Bill: Donna:

Bill: Donna: Bill: Donna: Bill:

Donna: Bill: Donna:

Hi, Bill. Hi, Donna. Where have you been? I haven't seen you for weeks. I know. I had to drop out last semester. I thought I had a cold, but it was mono. I'm sony to hear that. What is mono anyway? It's a virus, actually, that attacks your immune system. You really become susceptible to it when you stay up late, stress out, and get run down. It was my own fault. I just kept going, studying late. I didn't get enough rest. You know the story. Wow! All too well. I'm surprised that we all don't have it. A lot of college students do get it. In fact, it is jokingly called the "college disease." I can tell you though, it's no joke. So how are you now? I'm still tired. But I learned my lesson though. This semester I'm taking twelve hours, and I'm not pushing myself so hard. Good for you. I'm taking twenty-one hours. Sometimes I just don't know why I put so much pressure on myself. If I took one more semester to finish my program, then I wouldn't be so overloaded. Listen, if you get sick like I did, you'll have to drop out and you'll end up with an extra semester anyway. So you might as well slow down. True. Well, it's something to think about. Take care of yourself, Donna. I will. You. too.

(

Now get ready to answer the questions

(

Audio 30. What is the main topic of this conversation? Answer (A) "I thought I had a cold, but it was mono. . . . It's a virus. . . ." The work joke in Choice (C) refers to the phrase no joke, which means something that "isn't funny." Choice (D) is mentioned but is not the main topic of the conversation. Choice (B) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio 3 1. What was the woman's problem? Answer ( C ) "I had to drop out last semester." Choices (A) and (B) are probably true, but they caused her problem; they were not the problem. Choice (D) is not correct because she had to withdraw last semester, not this semester. Audio 32. Why is mono called the "college disease"? Answer (A) "A lot of college students get it [mono]." The work joke in Choice (C) refers fo the phrase no joke which means something that "isn't funny." Choices (B) and (D) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation.

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EXPLANATORY ANSWERS AND AUDIO SCRIPTS

Audio 33. What advice does the woman give the man? Answer ( C ) ". . . if you get sick . . . you'll end up with an extra semester. . . . .So you might as well slow down." The woman warns the man that he will have to drop out of school if he gets sick, but she does not advise him to drop out as in Choice (A). Choices (B) and (D) are not correct because the woman suggests that the man slow down. A udioTalk Narrator:

Listen to a talk by a college professor.

When Edward Sapir was teaching at Yale, Benjamin Lee Whorf enrolled in his class. Whorf was recognized for his investigations of the Hopi language, including his authorship of a grammar book and a dictionary. Even in his early publicatio? it is clear that he was developing the theory that the very different grammar of Hopi might indicate a different manner of conceiving and perceiving the world on the part of the native speaker of Hopi. In 1936, he wrote "An American Indian Model of the Universe," which explored the implications of the Hopi verb system with regard to the Hopi conception of space and time. Whorf is probably best known for his article "The Relation of Habitual Thought and Behavior to Language" and for the three articles that appeared in 1941 in the Technology Review. In these articles, he proposed what he called the principle of "linguistic relativity," which states, at least as a hypothesis, that the grammar of a language influences the manner in which the speaker understands reality and behaves with respect to it. Since the theory did not emerge until after Whorf had begun to study with Sapir, and since Sapir had most certainly shared in the development of the idea, it came to be called the SapirWhorf Hypothesis. Now get ready to answer the questions

1

Audio 34. What central theme does the lecture examine? Answer ( A )"Now I would like to outline the development of the Sapir-Whorf Hypothesis concerning the relationship between language and culture." Choices (B), (C), and (D) are secondary themes that are used to develop the main theme of the lecture. Audio 35. Which languages did Whorf use in his research? Answer ( C ) "In 1936, he [Whofl wrote 'An American Indian Model of the Universe,' which explored the implications of the Hopi verb system. . . ." Choice (A) refers to historical linguistics, not to the languages that Whorf used in his research. Choices (B) and (D) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the talk.

Audio 36. According to the lecturer, what is linguistic relativity? Answer ( C ) ". . . 'linguistic relativity,' which states, at Ieast as a hypothesis, that the grammar of a language influences the manner in which the speaker understands reality and behaves with respect to it." Choice (D) is not correct because grammar influences cultural behavior. Choices (A) and (B) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the talk. Audio What is another name for linguistic relativity? Answer (B) ". . . it [linguistic relativity] came to be called the Sapir-Whorf Hypothesis." Choice (A) is incomplete because it does not include the name of Whorf. Choice (C) includes the name of Boas, who contributed to the hypothesis but was not named in it. Choice (D) refers to a paper written by Whorf regarding the Hopi verb system, not to linguistic relativity. Audio Discussion Narrator: Listen to part of a class discussion in an environmental science class.

Dr. Green: Joanne: Dr. Green: Joanne: Dr. Green: Joanne: Dr. Green: Ted: Dr. Green: Ted :

Dr. Green: Joanne: Dr. Green:

Ted : Dr. Green: Ted :

Dr. Green: Ted:

Let's begin our discussion today by defining acid rain. Joanne? Acid rain is, uh, pollution that results when sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxide mix with the water vapor in the atmosphere. Good. But why do we call it acid rain, then? Oh, well, sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxide combine with water vapor and form sulfuric acid and nitric acid. And the acid corrodes the environment? It does. According to the book, acid reaches the Earth as rain, sleet, snow, fog, or even mist, but we call all of these various forms of pollution acid rain. Exactly right. Now, who can explain how the sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxide are introduced into the atmosphere in the first place? Ted? Fossil fuels, mostly. Right? Right. Could you elaborate on that a little? Sure. The fossil fuels can be the result of natural events such as volcanic eruptions or forest fires, but most of the time, they are introduced into the atmosphere by industrial processes like the smelting of metals or the burning of oil, coal, and gas. Anything else we should add to that? Yes, Joanne? Dr. Green, I think it's important to mention the extent of the damage to areas like the Great Lakes. Good point, Joanne. Acidity in the water and on the shorelines has all but eliminated some of the fish populations once found in the Great Lakes region along the United States-Canadian border. Any other damaging effects? I'm an agriculture major, Dr. Green, so I am more familiar with the large concentrations of acids that have been deposited in the soil around the Great Lakes. And what has happened to the vegetation in that region? Well, the rain has caused a chemical change in the soil, which is absorbed by the roots of plants. The plants don't get the nutrients they need, and as a consequence. they die, and uh.. . Yes? And it just occurred to me that acid rain is having an adverse effect not only on the environment but also on the economy, especially forestry and agriculture.

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EXPLANATORY ANSWERS AND AUDIO SCRIPTS

Dr. Green:

Ted : Dr. Green:

Excellent deduction. Now, let me give you the good news. In the Great Lakes region that was mentioned in our book, an Air Quality Accord was signed by Canada and the United States about ten years ago to establish limits for the amount of acidic deposits that may flow across international boundaries. Since then, many companies on both sides of the border have installed equipment that limits sulfur dioxide emissions, and some have even changed to fuels that are lower in sulfur content. Excuse me. Isn't it automobile emission that accounts for a high percentage of the nitrogen oxide? Yes, it is, Ted. And that problem presents a somewhat larger challenge to the governments and their agencies. Now get ready to answer the questions

Audio 38. What is the topic of this discussion? Answer (B) "Let's begin our discussion today by defining acid rain." Choices (A), (C), and'(D) are all secondary points of discussion that are used to develop the main topic of the discussion. Audw 39. What is acid rain? Answer ( A )". . . Acid rain is . . . sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxide [that] combine with water vapor and form sulfuric acid and nitric acid." Choice (C) refers to the result of acid rain, not to a definition of it. Choice (D) is not correct because sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxide, not just sulfur, combine with water vapor. Choice (B) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information i n the discussion.

\

Audio 40. In which two ways has the environment been damaged along the Great Lakes? Answer ( C ) (D) "Acidity.. .has all but eliminated . . . fish populations . . . in the Great Lakes . . . [and] rain has caused a chemical change in the soil. . . . Plants don't get the nutrients they need.. .." Choices (A) and (B) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the discussion. Audio 41. What are the conditions of the Air Quality Accord? Answer (B) ". . . Air Quality Accord . . . to establish limits for the amount of acidic deposits that may flow across international boundaries." Choice (A) refers to the result of the legislation, not to the conditions of it. Choice (C) is not correct because the problem of automobile emissions is a larger challenge to governments and their agencies. Choice (D) is not correct because the fuels are lower in sulfur, but some sulfur still remains in the fuels.

MODEL TEST 1-COMPUTER-ASSISTED TOEFL

Audio Lecture Narrator: Listen to part of a lecture in a microbiology class.

Bacteria is the common name for a very large group of one-celled microscopic organisms that, we believe, may be the smallest, simplest, and perhaps even the very first form of cellular life that evolved on Earth. Because they are so small, bacteria must be measured in microns, with one micron measuring about 0.00004 inches long. Most bacteria range from about 0.1 microns to 4 microns wide and 0.2 microns to 50 microns long. So you can understand that they are observable only under a microscope. There are three main types of bacteria, which are classified according to their shape. The slides that I am going to show you are photographic enlargements of bacteria that I observed under the microscope in the lab earlier today. This slide is an example of bacilli.

The bacilli are a group of bacteria that occur in the soil and air. As you can see, they are shaped like rods, and if you were to see them in motion, they would be rolling or tumbling under the microscope. These bacilli are largely responsible for food spoilage. The next slide is a very different shape of bacteria. It is referred to as the cocci group, and it tends to grow in chains. This example is of the common streptococci that causes strep throat.

Finally, let's look at the spiral-shaped bacteria called the spirilla. They look a little like corkscrews, and they are responsible for a number of diseases in humans.

Some species of bacteria do cause diseases, but for the most part, bacteria live harmlessly on the skin, in the mouth, and in the intestines. In fact, bacteria are very helpful to researchers. Bacterial cells resemble the cells of other life forms in many ways, and may be studied to give us insights. For example, we have a major research project in genetics in progress here at the

513

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EXPLANATORY ANSWERS AND AUDIO SCRIPTS

University. Since bacteria reproduce very rapidly, we are using them to determine how certain characteristics are inherited. Now get ready to answer the questions

Audio 42. What is the topic of this lecture? Answer (A) "There are three main types of bacteria. . . . " Choices (B), (C), and (D) are all secondary points of discussion that are used to develop the main topic of discussion. Audio 43. Which two characteristics are common in bacteria? Answer (A) ( C ) "Bacteria is the common name for a very large group of one-celled microscopic organisms. . . . Bacteria reproduce very rapidly. . . . " Choice (B) is not correct because, for the most part, bacteria live harmlessly on the slun, in the mouth, and in the intestines. Choice (D) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the lecture. Audio 44. Which of the following slides contain cocci bacteria?

Answer (B) Visual B is the slide for the cocci bacteria. Visual A is the slide for the bacilli bacteria. Visual C is the slide for the.$rilla bacteria. Audio 45. Why are bacteria being used in the research study at the University? Answer ( C ) "Bacterial cells resemble the cells of other life forms. . . . " Choice (A) is not correct because bacteria cells resemble the cells of other life forms. Choices (B) and (D) are true, but they are not the reasons that bacteria are being used in research studies. Audio Conversation Narrator: Listen to part of a conversation between a student and an academic advisor on campus. Man: Dr. Kelly: Man: Dr. Kelly: Man:

Dr. Kelly: Man: Dr. Kelly:

Dr. Kelly, do you have a minute? Sure. Come in. Thanks. I need to talk with you about my sociology class. Let's see, that would be Sociology 530 with Dr. Brown. Right. The problem is that when I scheduled that class, it was supposed to be offered at three o'clock in the afternoon, Tuesdays and Thursdays, but for some reason the time has been changed to nine in the morning. Since I work mornings, I can't take it at that time. I see. Well, would you like to drop the class? Yes, but 1 also need to pick up another class. I have to be a full-time student in order to qualify for my student loan. So you need at least twelve hours. And you need afternoon classes.

MODEL TEST 1--COMPUTER-ASSISTED TOEFL

Man: Dr. Kelly: Man: Dr. Kelly: Man: Dr. Kelly: Man:

Dr. Kelly: Man: Dr. Kelly:

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That's right. Or evening classes. Did you have anything in mind? Yes. I was considering Sociology 560 or 570. I thought I'd get your opinion. Either one will fit into your program since you are a Soc major, and they are both electives. Too bad you can't get a required course. I know, but they all seem to be offered in the morning. Okay, then. Which one is the most interesting to you? I'm interested in both of them, but I was thinking since Dr. Brown teaches Soc 560, I might prefer that one. I've been trying to take a class with her because I hear that she is an excellent professor. Good. The class is open, and I'll just sign that drop-add form for you to drop 530 and add 560. You can just tell Dr. Brown what happened when you see her in class. Okay. Thanks a lot, Dr. Kelly. I really appreciate it. Don't mention it.

I

Now get ready to answer the questions

I

Audio 46. What is the purpose of this conversation? Answer ( A ) "It [the class] was supposed to be offered at three o'clock . . . the time has been changed. . . . " Choice (B) is not correct because the man has a job in the morning that conflicts with his class schedule. Choice (C) is not correct because the man has a student loan. Choice (D) is not correct because the man is already a sociology major. Audio 47. Why does the man need to take at least twelve hours? Answer (B) "I have to be a full-time student in order to qualify for my student loan." Choice (D) is not correct because the courses are electives. Choices (A) and (C) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the lecture. Audio 48. Why does the man prefer Sociology 560? Answer (C) "Dr. Brown teaches Soc 560. . . . I've been trying to take a class with her. . . . " Choice (A) is not correct because it is an elective, not a required course. Choice (B) is not correct because it has been changed to nine in the morning. Choice (D) is not correct because both courses are sociology classes. Audio 49. What will Dr. Kelly do? Answer (B) "...when I scheduled that class, it was supposed to be offered at three o'clock . . . but . . . the time has been changed. . . . " Choice (A) is not correct because the man is trying to register for classes. Choice (C) is not correct because the man already has a student loan. Choice (D) is not correct because the man is a sociology major, and he is trying to add a sociology class.

Answer (B) ". . . tell Dr. Brown what happened when you see her in class." Choices (A), (C), and (D) are not correct because he will tell Dr. Brown what happened when he goes to her class.

Section 2: Structure 1. (B) A cardinal number is used after a noun.

The is used with an ordinal number before a noun. Choice (A) is incomplete because there is no verb after who. Choices (C) and (D) are redundant. 2. (C) Bur also is used in correlation with the inclusive not only. Choice (B) would be used in correlation with both. Choices (A) and (D) are not used in correlation with another inclusive. 3. (A) A past form in the condition requires either would or could and a verb word in the result. Because the past form planted is used in the condition, - will should be would in the result. 4. (D) In order to refer to an increase in the rate of inflation, rises should be used. To raise means to move to a higher place. To rise means to increase. 5. (C) A form of have with someone such as General Lee and a verb word expresses a causative. Choice (A) is an infinitive, not a verb word. Choice (B) is a participle. Choice (D) is an -ing form. 6. (B) Ideas after exclusives should be expressed by parallel structures. To hunt should be in hunting to provide for parallelism with the phrase in planting. 7. (B) Effect on is a prepositional idiom. In should be on. 8. (A) Because is used before a subject and verb to introduce cause. Choices (B), (C), and (D) are not accepted for statements of cause. 9. (A) The word order for a passive sentence is a form of BE followed by a participle. Call should be called. 10. (B) Form should be formation. Although both are nouns derived from verbs, the -ation ending is needed here. Form means the

structure. Formation means the process of forming over time. 11. (C) For scientific results, a present form in the condition requires a present or future form in the result. Choices (A), (B), and (D) are not conditional statements. 12. (A) Ideas in a series should be expressed by parallel structures. Only to sell in Choice (A) provides for parallelism with the infinitive to increase. Choices (B), (C), and (D) are not parallel. 13. (D) Because it is a prepositional phrase, as grass should be like grass. As functions as a conjunction. Like functions as a preposition. 14. ( C ) Ideas in a series should be expressed by parallel structures. It is should be deleted to provide for parallelism with the adjectives interesting, informative, and easy. 15. (C) Activities of the dead logically establish a point of view in the past. Lives should be lived in order to maintain the point of view. 16. (D) In contrary-to-fact clauses, were is the only accepted form of the verb BE. Choices (A), (B), and (C) are forms of the verb BE, but they are not accepted in contrary-to-fact clauses. 17. (A) The anticipatory clause it is generally believed that introduces a subject and verb, Java Man ...is. In Choices (B) and (C) the verb is is repeated. Choice (D) may be used as a subject clause preceding a main verb, not preceding a subject and verb. "That it is generally believed that Java Man, who lived before the first Ice Age, is the first manlike animal is the result of entries in textbooks" would also be correct. 18. (A) A verb word must be used in a clause after an impersonal expression. Is not should be not be after the impersonal expression it is essential. 19. (A) Who should be whom because it is the complement of the clause many people con-

MODEL TEST 1--COMPUTER-ASSISTED TOEFL

sider. Who functions as a subject. Whom functions as a complement. 20. (B) Only Choice (B) may be used with a noncount noun such as money. Choices (A), (C), and (D) may be used with count nouns. 2 1. (D) By expresses means before an -ing form. Refine should be refining after the preposition by. 22. (D) There must be agreement between pronoun and antecedent. Their should be its to agree with the singular antecedent atmosphere. 23. ( B ) Most adverbs of manner are formed by adding -1y to adjectives. Broad should be broadly to qualify the manner in which the speaking was done. 24. @) An adjective clause modifies a noun i.n the main clause. That provides food modifies the one. Choice (A) is a subject and verb without the clause marker that. Choice (B) is a clause marker that with an -ing form, not a verb. Choice (C) is a verb without a clause marker. 25. (A) Plural count nouns are used after a number or a reference to a number of items. Term should be terms.

Section 3: Reading 1. (B) "The Process of Photosynthesis" is the best title because it states the main idea of the passage. The other choices are secondary ideas which are used to develop the main idea. Choice (A) describes the process in the form of an equation. In Choice (C), the parts of plants are named because of their roles in the process. Choice (D) is one of the products of the process. 2. (B) "...the green parts of plants use carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and release oxygen to it. Oxygen is the product of the reaction." The water referred to in Choice (A) and the carbon referred to in Choice (C) are used in photosynthesis, but neither one is mentioned as occurring in excess as a result of the process. Choice (D) refers to the natural substance in the chloroplasts of plants, not to a chemical combination of carbon dioxide and water. 3. (D) "These exchanges are the opposite of those that occur in respiration." Choices (A), (B), and (C) refer to processes which occur

517

in photosynthesis, not to processes which are the opposite. 4. (A) "...radiant energy from the sun is stored as chemical energy." In Choice (B), it is water, not energy from the sun, which is conducted from the xylem to the leaves. Choice (C) is not correct because energy from the sun is the source of the chemical energy used in decomposing carbon dioxide and water. Choice (D) is not correct because it is oxygen, not energy, that is released one to one for each molecule of carbon dioxide used. 5. "Except for the usually small percentage used in respiration, the oxygen released in the process diffuses out of the leaf into the atmosphere through stomates." Quotation from sentence 6, paragraph 1. 6. (A) In the context of this passage, stored is closest in meaning to refiin23. Choice5 (B), (C), and (D) are not accepted definitions of the word. 7. (B) "The products of their decomposition [carbon dioxide and water] are recombined into a new compound, which is successively built up into more and more complex substances." Choices (A), (C), and (D) would change the meaning of the sentence. 8. (B) In the context of this passage, 3tl~cec;BivTY is closest in meaning to '1 bequefc3. Choices (A), (C), and (D) are not accepted definitions of the word. 9. (C) "At the same time, a balance of gases is preserved in the atmosphere." Energy from the sun, referred to in Choice (A), and carbon dioxide, referred to in Choice (B), are used in the process of photosynthesis, not produced as a result of it. Choice (D) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the passage. 10. (A) Choices (B), (C), and (D) are mentioned in sentences 6 and 7, paragraph 1. Water. not oxygen, is absorbed by the roots. 11. (B) The other choices are secondary ideas that are used to develop the main idea, "the Nobel Prizes." Choices (A), (C), and (D) are historically significant to the discussion. 12. (A) "The Nobel Prizes ...were made available by a fund bequeathed for that purpose.. .by Alfred Bernhard Nobel." Because of the reference to bequeath, it must be concluded that Nobel left money in a will. In Choice (B), Nobel was the founder of the

EXPLANATORY ANSWERS AND AUDIO SCRIPTS

51 8

prizes, not a recipient. Choice (C) refers to the place where Nobel was born, not to where he is living now. Since Nobel has bequeathed funds, it must be concluded that he is dead and could not serve as chairman of a committee as in Choice (D). 13. (B) In the context of this passage, Wl'll refers to Choices (A), (C), and (D) are not accepted definitions of the word in this context. 14. (B) 'The Nobel Prizes, awarded annually . . ." Because of the reference to annually, it must be concluded that the prizes are awarded once a year. Choices (A), (C), and (D) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the passage. 15. "According to the legend, Nobel's death had been erroneously reported in a newspaper, and the focus of the obituary was the fact that Nobel had invented dynamite. When he read this objective summary of his life [the obituary], the great chemist, it is said, decided that he wanted his name to be remembered for something mo% positive and humanitarian than inventing an explosive that was a potential weapon." The connection between these two sentences is the reference to "the obituary." 16. (D) In the context of this passage, lng could best be replaced by Ffceptional. Choices (A), (B), and (C) are not accepted definitions of the word. 17. (C) "The Nobel Prizes [are] awarded annually for distinguished work in chemistry, physics, physiology or medicine, literature, and international peace." Since there is no prize for music, a composer, in Choice (C) would not be eligible for an award. Choice (A) could be awarded a prize for literature. Choice (B) would be awarded a prize for medicine. Choice (D) could be awarded a prize for peace. 18. (A) Choice (A) is a restatement of the sentence referred to in the passage. To administer means to oversee or to manage. Choices (B), (C), and (D) would change the meaning of the original sentence. 19. (B) "The prizes are ... presented ... on December 10 . .. on the anniversary of his [Alfred Nobel's] death." Choice (A) is not correct because it is a tribute to Nobel, not to the King of Sweden. Choice (D) is not correct because the Nobel Foundation, not the CenD -

tral Bank of Sweden, administers the trust. Choice (C) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the passage. 20. In the context of this passage, the word TwHrd is closest in meaning to p r i z e . No other words or phrases in the bold text are close to the meaning of the word prile . 21. (C) The other choices are secondary ideas that are used to develop the main idea, "the development of opera." Choices (A), (B), and (D) are historically significant to the discussion. 22. In the context of this passage, the word 2ER2 82lTy is closest in meaning to u'8uany. No other words or phrases in the bold text are close to the meaning of the word usually. 23. (D) "The usually accepted date for the beginning of opera as we know it is 1600." Choice (A) refers to Greek tragedy, the inspiration for modern opera. Choices (B) and (C) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the passage. 24. (A) "Although stage plays have been set to music since the era of the ancient Greeks, when the dramas of Sophocles and Aeschylus were accompanied by lyres and flutes. the usually accepted date for the beginning of opera as we know it [the opera] is 1600." Choices (B), (C), and (D) would change the meaning of the sentence. 25. (B) ". ..composer Jacopo Peri produced his famous Euridice, generally considered to be the first opera." Choice (A) refers to the form of musical story that inspired Pen', not to the opera that he wrote. Choice (C) refers to the wife of Henry IV for whose marriage the opera was written, not to the title of the opera. Choice (D) refers to the group of musicians who introduced the opera form, not to the title of an opera written by them. 26. @) "As part of the celebration of the marriage of King Henry N.. .Jacopo Pen' produced his famous Euridice." Choice (A) is not correct was produced in Florence, because E~~ridice the native city of King Henry's wife and the place where the wedding was celebrated. Choice (B) refers to Greek tragedy, not to modern opera. Choice (C) is improbable because Euridice has become so famous. 27. (B) "...a group of Italian musicians called the Camerata began to revive the style of musical story that had been used in Greek

MODEL TEST 1--COMPUTER-ASSISTED TOEFL

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

tragedy." In Choice (A), musicians in the Camerata were Italian, not Greek. Choice (C) is not correct because the center of the Camerata was Florence, Italy. King Henry IV referred to in Choice (D) was a patron of opera, but the name given to his court was not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the passage. (B) In the context of this passage, K T f E could best be replaced by F e ? e . Choices (A), (C), and (D) are not accepted definitions of the word. (C) In the context of this passage, F15115; is closest in meaning to R€FiW. Choices (A), (B), and (D) are not accepted definitions of the word. ( C ) "They called their compositions opera in rnusica or musical works. It is from this phrase that the word 'opera' is borrowed." Choice (A) refers to the origin of the plots for opera, not to the term. Choice (B) is not correct because the Carnerata was a group of Italian musicians. Choice (D) refers to the composer of the first opera. "Composers gave in to the demands of singers, writing many operas that were little more than a succession of brilliant tricks for the voice, designed to showcase the splendid voices of the singers who had requested them [brilliant tricks]." Other choices would change the meaning of the sentence. In the context of this passage, the word is closest in meaning- to hncrlcfn. No other words or phrases in the bold text are close to the meaning of the word

m m .

33. (B) The author's main purpose is to describe the nature of sunspots. Choice (A) is not correct because there is no theory that completely explains sunspots. Choices (C) and (D) are important to the discussion, and provide details that support the main idea. 34. (B) In the context of this passage, T8flTRF fiefU';?T is closest in meaning to open to debate. Choices (A), (C), and (D) are not accepted definitions of the word. 35. (B) ". ..great storms on the surface of the sun hurl streams of solar particles into the atmosphere." Storms refer to disturbances of wind. Choice (A) is not correct because great storms have been identified as the cause of particles being hurled into space. In Choice

519

(C), there are storms, not rivers on the surface of the sun. Choice (D) refers to what happens as a result of the particles being hurled into space. 36. (D) In the context of this passage, mmq refers to ~ p r e c e S T f r f F i l 4 e E Choices (A), (B), and (C) are not accepted definitions of the word. 37. (A) ". ..streams of solar particles [are hurled] into the atmosphere." Because of the reference to particles, it must be concluded that the matter is very small. Choices (B), (C), and (D) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the passage. 38. (C) Choice (C) is a restatement of the sentence referred to in the passage. The fact that the cooler sunspots may account for their color means that the color could be affected by the cooler temperature. 39. In the context of this passage, the word Rr*d is most opposite in meaning to FT. No other words or phrases in the bold text are opposite in meaning to the word tiny. 40. (B) "About five percent of the spots are large enough so that they [the spots] can be seen without instruments; consequently, observations of sunspots have been recorded for several thousand years." Choices (A), (C), and @) would change the meaning of the sentence. 41. (A) In the context of this passage, FTnic= 4 u W could best be replaced by result. Choices (B), (C), and (D) are not accepted definitions of the word. 42. (B) "Sunspots ...tend to occur in pairs." Choices (A) and (C) refer to possibilities for arrangements, but not to the configuration in which sunspots usually occur. Choice (D) is not mentioned in the range of numbers for sunspots, From one to more than one hundred. The number one thousand refers to the number of years sunspots have been recorded, not to the number in a configuration. 43. (B) ". ..several models attempt to relate the phenomenon [of sunspots] to magnetic fields along the lines of longitude from the north and south poles of the sun." Choice (A) is not correct because the magnetic fields are on the sun, not the Earth. Choice (C) is not correct because the storms are on the sun, not on the Earth. Choice (D) is not correct because several models attempt to relate sunspots to magnetic fields.

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EXPLANATORY ANSWERS AND AUDIO SCRIPTS

44. "About 5 percent of all sunspots are large enough sothat they can be seen from Earth without instruments; consequently, observations of sunspots have been recorded for thousands of years." Quotation from sentence 2, paragraph 3. 45. (C) ". . .the controversial sunspot theory." Because the theory is controversial, it must be concluded that it is subject to disagreement. Choice (B) is not correct because the theory is controversial. Choices (A) and (D) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the passage.

Writing Seetian Question Many people enjoy participating in sports for recreation; others enjoy participating in the arts. Give the benefits of each, take a position, and defend it. Outline Benefits sports Group membershipteams Good health Life lessons-winning and losing Benefits arts Creative outlet Cultural lessons-traditions Spiritual experience Divide my time-balance Soccer Photography

Recreation

Sports

health

M 1 Balance

Soccer

Example Essay Many people enjoy participating in sports for recreation because it offers an opportunity to be part of a group. As a participant, you can join a team and enjoy all the benefits of m e m b e r s h i p shared experiences, travel to other sites to play, and a feeling of belonging. In training for a sport, an exercise routine usually contributes to good health. Probably even more important than group identity and good health are the life lessons that participation in a sport provides. Setting a goal and working toward it, collaborating with others, and putting a plan into action are all good lessons that can be learned on the playing field. How to win graciously and lose gracefully are important not only in playing a game but also in being successful in life. The arts offer another avenue for recreation. By spending time in artistic endeavors, you can explore your creativity and appreciate or make something beautiful-a picture, a song, or a floral arrangement. Besides the creative outiet, participating in the arts offers an opportunity to learn about the culture and traditions that infuse art with meaning. For some people, participating in or even viewing art can be a spiritual experience. To create and appreciate a beautiful environment is important not only for personal recreation but also because it makes the world a nicer place for everyone. When I have time for recreational activities, I participate in both sports and the arts. By dividing my time between them, I can take advantage of all the benefits of both types of recreation. I enjoy playing soccer at school, which allows me to be part of a team. The training routine includes both physical and mental exercises. I also enjoy photography, which gives me a creative outlet. I find that alternating these activities provides balance in my life.

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Section 1: I.istening The Listening Section of the test measures the ability to understand conversations and talks in English. On the actual TOEFL exam, you will use headphones to listen to the conversations and talks. While you are listening, pictures of the speakers or other information will be presented on your computer screen. There are two parts to the Listening Section, with special directions for each part. On the day of the test, the amount of time you will have to answer all of the questions will appear on the computer screen. The time you spend listening to the test material will not be counted. The listening material and questions about it will be presented only one time. You will not be allowed to take notes or have any paper at your computer. You will both see and hear the questions before the answer choices appear. You can take as much time as you need to select an answer; however, it will be to your advantage to answer the questions as quickly as possible. You may change your answer as many times as you want before you c o n f m it. After you have c o n f m e d an answer, you will not be able to return to the question. Before you begin working on the Listening Section, you will have an opportunity to adjust the volume of the sound. You may not be able to change the volume after you have started the test.

QUESTION DIRECTIONS-Part A In Part A of the Listening Section, you will hear short conversations between two people. In some of the conversations, each person speaks only once. In other conversations, one or both of the people speak more than once. Each conversation is followed by one question about it. Each question in this part has four answer choices. You should click on the best answer to each question. Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers.

Audio I. Man: Woman: Man: Narrator:

How many did you have for the orientation? Well, let me see. Fifty had registered, but everyone didn't show up. I believe that we had twenty-five from the Middle East and at least fifteen from Latin America. You don't mean it! What had the man assumed?

Answer (B) You don't mean it is an idiomatic expression that means the speaker is surprised. Choice (C) is not correct because the man is surprised by the large turn out. Choices (A) and (D) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation.

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Audio 2. Man: Woman: Narrator:

Excuse me. Could you tell me when Dr. Smith has office hours? Not really, but there's a sign on the door I think. What does the woman imply that the man should do?

Answer (D) Since the woman points out the sign on the door, she implies that the man should look at it. Choices (A), (B), and (C) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audw 3 . Man: Woman: Narrator:

I heard that Professor Wilson will let you do a project for extra credit. That's great! I could use some. What is the woman probably going to do?

Answer (D) Since the woman expressed interest in and enthusiasm for the opportunity to do a project for 'extra credit, it must be concluded that she intends to do one. Choice (A) is not correct because the woman is already taking a class from Professor Wilson. Choice (C) is not correct because the reference to "extra7' is to extra credit, not to an extra class. Choice (B) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio 4. Man: Woman: Narrator:

Is Paul angry? If he were, he'd tell us. What does the woman say about Paul?

Answer (B) Listen carefully for the distinction between the words angry and hungry. Because the woman says that Paul would tell them if he were angry, it must be concluded that Paul would tell them if there were a problem. In Choices (A) and (C), the word angry is confused with the word hungry. Choice (B) refers to what the woman, not the man, thinks about Paul. Audio 5. Man: Woman: Narrator:

I heard you got an A on the final exam. I think you're the only one who did! Not really. There were a couple of other As. What does the woman mean?

Answer ( D ) Since the woman says that there were a couple of As, it must be concluded that several other students received A grades. Choice (B) is not correct because she refers to other As, implying that she received one. Choices (A) and (C) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio 6 . Woman: Man: Narrator:

Oh, no. It's five o'clock already and I haven't finished studying for the quiz in Dr. Taylor's class. Don't worry. That clock is half an hour fast. What problem does the woman have?

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Answer ( C ) Since the man says that the clock is fast, it must be concluded that the woman still has time to study. Choice (A) is not correct because a half hour is left. Choice (D) is not correct because the man knows the clock is fast. Choice (B) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio 7 . Man: Woman: Narrator:

It's much better to wait until tomorrow to go. Don't you agree? Yes. I couldn't agree more. What does the woman mean?

Answer ( B ) To not agree more means to "agree very much." Choices (A) and (D) misinterpret the phrase couldn't agree more as a negative. Choice (C) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio 8. Man: Woman: Narrator:

I have to go to class because I have a test, but if 1 could, I'd go with you to the movie. That's too bad. I wish that you could come along. What is the man going to do?

Answer (A) The man says that he has to go to class. Choice (B) refers to what the woman, not the man, is going to do. Choices (C) and (D) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio 9. Woman: Man: Narrator:

I left a message on your answering mach.ine a couple of days ago. Yes. I've been meaning to get back with you. What does the man mean?

Answer ( C ) Meaning to is an idiomatic expression that means intention on the part of the speaker. To "get back with" someone means to return a call or otherwise communicate. Choice (B) is not correct because a message was left on the machine. Choice (D) is not correct because the man acknowledges the message. Choice (A) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio 10. Man: Woman: Narrator:

I think it's my turn. Sony you had to wait so long. One of the other secretaries is out today. What does the woman mean?

Answer ( ~ . f l obe out is an idiomatic expression that means to be "absent." Choices (B), (C), and (D) are not paraphrases of the expression and may not be concluded from information in the conversation.

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Audio 11. Man: Woman:

Narrator:

Could you please tell me what room Dr. Robert Davis is in? Yes, he's in the Math Department on the fourth floor. Check with the secretary before going in, though. What does the woman suggest that the man do?

Answer (B) "Check with the secretary before going in . . ." Choice (A) is not correct because the woman has already given him directions to the Math Department. Choice (C) is not correct because the woman tells him to check with the secretary first. Choice (D) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio 12. Man: Woman: Narrator:

Tom wasn't in class again today! I know. I wonder whether he'll show up for the final exam. What can be inferred about Tom?

Answer (D) Since Tom is often absent and there is doubt that he will be present for the final exam, it must be concluded that Tom is not very responsible. Choices (A), (B), and (C) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio 13. Man:

Woman: Man: Woman: Narrator:

Hey, Kathy. Hi Ted. How are you doing? Fine. Are we still on for tonight? I'm looking forward to it. What does the man mean?

Answer (D) Are we still on is an idiomatic expression that is used to confirm a date. Choice (C) refers to the woman's feelings, not to the man's feelings. Choices (A) and (B) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio 14. Woman: Man:

Narrator:

So the course is closed. This is terrible! I have to have it to graduate. You're okay. Just Dr. Collin's section is closed. There's another section that's still open, but nobody knows who's teaching it. It's marked "staff." What will the woman probably do?

Answer ( C ) Since the woman must have the course to graduate and Dr. Collin's section is closed, she will probably enroll in the section marked "staff." Choice (A) is not correct because Dr. Collin's section is closed. Choice (B) is not correct because the woman is distressed because she is planning to graduate soon. Choice (D) is not correct because she needs the course to graduate and is more interested in the course than in the instructor. Audio 15. Woman: Man: Woman: Narrator:

What's wrong? I still haven't received my score on the GMAT test. Maybe I should call to check on it. Don't worry so much. It takes at least six weeks to receive your score. What does the woman think that the man should do?

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Answer ( A ) Since the woman says that it takes six weeks to receive the score, she implies that the man should wait for the results to be mailed. Choice (B) refers to the man's plan, not to the woman's suggestion. Choice (C) is not correct because the man has already taken the test and is waiting for the score. Choice (D) is not correct because the woman tells him not to worry. Audio 16. Man: Woman: Narrator:

You've been doing a lot of traveling, haven't you? Yes. We want to make the most of our time here. What does the woman mean?

Answer (B) To make the most of something is an idiomatic expression that means to "take advantage of' an opportunity. Choices (A), (C), and (D) are not paraphrases of the expression and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio 17. Woman: Man: Narrator:

Did you get your tickets? I talked to Judy about it, and she took care of it for me. What does the man mean?

Answer (B) To take care of something is an idiomatic expression that means to "be responsible" for it. Choices (A), (C), and (D) are not paraphrases of the expression and may not be concluded from information in the conversation.

QUESTION DIRECTIONS-Part B In Part B of the Listening Section, you will hear several longer conversations and talks. Each conversation or talk is followed by several questions. The conversations, talks, and questions will not be repeated. The conversations and talks are about a variety of topics. You do not need special knowledge of the topics to answer the questions correctly. Rather, you should answer each question on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in the conversations or talks. For most of the questions, you will need to click on the best of four possible answers. Some questions will have special directions. The special directions will appear in a box on the computer screen.

Audio Conversation Narrator: Listen to part of a conversation between two classmates on a college campus. Man: Woman: Man: Woman: ,/

Man: Woman:

Did you understand that experiment that Bill mentioned in the group presentation'? The one about free fall? Right. The one that was conducted on the moon. Sure. The astronaut held a hammer in one hand and a feather in the other. Then he dropped them at the same time.. . . ..and both of them hit the ground at the same time. Yes. So that proves Galilee's theory that all objects fall at the same rate in the absence of air resistance.

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Man: Woman: Man: Woman:

Man: Woman: Man: Woman:

Okay. That was the part that was missing for me. The part about air resistance. Oh. Well, since there is no air resistance on the moon, it is the ideal environment for the experiment. That makes sense. Actually, the part that surprised me was how much easier it is to lift the hammer on the moon than it is on Earth because of the moon's lower rate of gravitational acceleration. But didn't they say that it was just as difficult to push the hammer along the surface when it fell? Right again. Because gravity only governs vertical motion like lifting, but not horizontal motion like pushing. Thanks for going over this with me. You're welcome. I really liked the presentation. I think the group did a good job.

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Audio 18. What are the man and woman talking about? Answer ( B ) "Did you understand that experiment that Bill mentioned in the group presentation?' Choices (A), (C), and (D) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the discussion. Audio 19. Why is the moon an ideal environment for the experiment? Answer (A) ". . . since there is no air resistance on the moon, it is the ideal environment for the experiment." Choice (B) refers to the fact that the moon has a lower gravitational acceleration, not that there is no gravitational acceleration. Choices (C) and (D) are true, but they are not the reason the moon is an ideal environment. Audio 20. Why was it easier to lift the hammer on the moon? Answer (A) ". . . much easier . . . to lift the hammer on the moon.. .because of the moon's lower rate of gravitational acceleration." Choice (B) is true, but it is not the reason lifting the hammer on the moon is easier. Choices (C) and (D) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the discussion. Audio 21. How did the woman feel about the presentation? Answer ( C ) "I really liked the presentation." Choice (A) refers to information about the hammer, not to the entire presentation. Choice (B) is not correct because she liked the presentation. Choice (D) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the discussion.

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Audio Conversation Narrator: Listen to a conversation between two college students. Man: Woman: Man: Woman: Man: Woman: Man: Woman: Man: Woman: Man: Woman: Man: Woman: Man:

What did you think about the video we were supposed to watch for Professor Stephen's class? I didn't see it. Was it good? Really it was. It was about stress. How to relieve stress? Not really. More the effects of stress on the national health. Oh. But it was interesting, though. Really? Yes. I think they said that one out of nine women age forty-five through sixty-five will have a heart attack. I'm surprised at that. I was, too. Oh, another thing. They said that women usually don't get the same level of care that men do, so the heart attack is likely to be more serious. Why is that? Because many members of the medical profession still think of a heart attack as a male problem, so they don't recognize the symptoms in their women patients. Well, it does sound like an interesting video. I'm going to try to see it before class next time so I'll be ready for the discussion. It's on reserve in the library, so you can't check it out, but you can use one of the viewing rooms. It's only an hour long.

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Audio 22. What was the video about? Answer ( B ) "It [the video] was about stress." Choices (A), (C), and (D) are secondary themes used to develop the main theme of the video. Adio 23. What did the students learn about women? Answer ( C ) "They said that women usually don't get the same level of care that men do. . . ." Choice (D) is not correct because the heart attacks suffered by women are likely to be more serious. Choices (A) and (B) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio 24. How did the man feel about the video? Answer ( B ) "Really it was [good]." Choice (A) is not correct because he explains the video to the woman. Choic'e (C) is not correct because he encourages the woman to view it. Choice (D) is not correct because he was surprised by the report on the number of women who have heart attacks.

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Audio 25. What will the woman probably do? Answer ( B ) "It's on reserve in the library. . . . " Choice (A) refers to the fact that the man and woman have already discussed the video, not to what the woman will do. Choice (C) is not correct because tapes on reserve cannot be checked out. Choice (D) refers to what the woman will do after she sees the video. Audio Lecture Nmator: Listen to a lecture by an English intructor. The romance and marriage of Elizabeth Barrett to Robert Browning inspired some of the greatest love poems written in the English language. Elizabeth, without a doubt the greatest woman poet of the Victorian period, was born in Durham County, England, in 1806. Her first important publication was The Seraphim and Other Poems, which appeared in 1838. By 1843, she was so widely recognized that her name was suggested to replace the late Poet Laureate as the official national poet of England. In part because the sovereign was a woman, there was great support for a movement to break with the tradition of a male Poet Laureate. Nevertheless, she lost the competition to William Wordsworth. A short time later, she married Robert Browning, himself a gifted poet, and they fled to Florence, Italy. A play, 7 I e Barretts of Wimpole Street, recounts their confrontation with Elizabeth's father and their eventual elopement against his wishes.

While living in Florence, their only son was born. A year later, in 1850, Elizabeth published her collected works, along with a volume of new poems entitled Sonnets from the Portuguese, so named because her husband often called her his "Portuguese." Aurora Leigh, her longest work, appeared in 1856, only five years before her death in Italy in 1861.

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Audio 26. What is the main topic of this lecture? Answer @) Elizabeth Barrett Browning is the main topic of this lecture. Choices (A), (B), and (C) are secondary topics that are used to develop the main topic of the lecture. -1

Audio 27. According to the lecturer, what was one reason that Elizabeth Barrett was considered for the title of Poet Laureate? Answer ( C ) "In part because the sovereign was a woman, there was great support for a movement to break with the tradition of a male Poet Laureate." Choice (A) is not correct because Elizabeth Barrett was not married at the time that she was considered for the title of Poet Laureate. Choice (B) is not correct because Sonnetsfrom the Portuguese was not published at the time that she was considered for the title. Choice (D) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the talk.

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Audio 28. Where did Elizabeth and Robert Browning live after their elopement? Answer (B) ". . . she married Robert Browning, himself a gifted poet, and they fled to Florence, Italy." The place in Choice (C) refers to the title of one of Elizabeth's most famous works, Sonnetsfrom the Portuguese, not to a place where she lived. The place in Choice (D) refers to the country where she lived before, not after, her marriage. Choice (A) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the talk. Audio 29. When did Elizabeth Barrett Browning die? Answer (D) "Aurora Leigh, her longest work, appeared in 1856, only five years before her death in Italy in 1861." Choice (A) refers to the date when Elizabeth Barrett was suggested to replace the Poet Laureate, not to the date of her death. Choice (B) refers to the date when her son was born, one year before she published her collected works in 1850. Choice (C) refers to the date when Aurora Leigh was published, five years before her death. Audio Lecture Narrator: Listen to a lecture by a biology instructor. Today's lecture will include the most outstanding achievements in biology as it relates to the medical sciences. Early in Greek history, Hippocrates began to study the human body and to apply scientific method to the problems of diagnosis and the treatment of diseases. Unlike other physicians of his time, he discarded the theory that disease was caused by the gods. Instead, he kept careful records of symptoms and treatments, indicating the success or failure of the patient's cure. He has been recognized as the father of modern medicine. About a century later, Aristotle began a scientific study of plants and animals, classifying more than five hundred types on the basis of body structure. Because of his great contribution to the field, Aristotle has been called the father of biology. By the first century A.D., Dioscorides had collected a vast amount of information on plants, which he recorded in the now famous Materia Medica, a book that remained an authoritative reference among physicians for fifteen hundred years. During the Middle Ages, scientific method was scorned in favor of alchemy. Thus, medicine and biology had advanced very little from the time of the ancients until the seventeenth century when the English physician and anatomist William Harvey discovered a mechanism for the circulation of the blood in the body.

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Audio 30. What is the main topic of this lecture? /

Answer (B) The contributions of biology to medicine are the main topic of this lecture. Choices (A), (C), and (D) are secondary topics that are used to develop the main topic of the lecture.

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Audio 3 1. What was Hippocrates' greatest contribution to medicine? Answer ( C ) "Hippocrates began . . . to apply scientific method to the problems of diagnosis and the treatment of diseases. . . . He kept careful records of symptoms and treatments." Choice (A) refers to the work of Aristotle, not Hippocrates. Choice (D) refers to a theory that Hippocrates discarded in favor of the scientific method, not to his work. Choice (B) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the lecture. Audio 32. Who is known as the father of biology? Answer (B) "Because of his great contribution to the field, Aristotle has been called the father of biology." Choice (A) refers to the father of modern medicine, not to the father of biology. Choice (C) refers to the author of Materia Medica. Choice ( D ) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the lecture. Audio 33. What was the contribution made to medicine by William Harvey? Answer ( C ) ". . . the English physician and anatomist William Harvey discovered a mechanism for the circulation of the blood in the body." Choice (D) refers to a reference book that was a contribution by Dioscorides. Choices (A) and (B) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the lecture. Audio Discussion Narrator: Listen to part of a class discussion in a sociology class. Dr. Jackson: Last class, I asked you to locate some articles about gang activity. Let's just go around the table and share what we found. Tracy, will you begin please? Tracy: Okay. Actually, 1 did a search of sociological studies on gang activity, and I found that gangs have been prevalent for much longer than I had assumed. I was so surprised. For some reason, I thought that gang activity was a fairly recent phenomenon, but actually, one of the largest studies was carried out by Thrasher in 1936. Dr. Jackson: Good. Good. I'm pleased that you did that. Thrasher's study is a classic research investigation. Can you summarize the findings? Tracy: Sure. First, I should say that the study included more than 1300 gangs with more than 25,000 members. According to Thrasher, a gang is a group that may form spontaneously, but after that, will integrate through conflict and violence. Over time, a spirit of solidarity and an attachment to a local territory form. What is most interesting, besides the long history of gangs in the United States, is the fact that not much has changed over the years. And, oh yes, gang behavior seems pretty similar even across cultures. Dr. Jackson: That is interesting. Bill: Dr. Jackson, may I go next? I have just a brief comment that seems to fit in here. Dr. Jackson: Please. Bill: Well, another classic study, much later, about 1987 or 8, I think, by Joan Moore, indicated that gang behavior is probably caused by normal adolescent insecurities-the desire for peer approval, respect, support, acceptance, and, in some cases, protection, if the neighborhood is perceived as dangerous. It seems that gangs take the place of the more childish and acceptable cliques that develop in high schools. /-

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Sandy:

Is it my turn? Well, I looked up the definitions of gang members by police departments and law enforcement agencies. According to the California Youth Gang Task Force, for example, a gang member will be recognizable because of gang-related tattoos, clothing, and paraphernalia like scarves and hats that identify a particular gang, and allow others to confirm that the wearer has a right to be on the gang's turf. And, to follow up on Tracy's comments about the history of gangs, these criteria have been in place for a long time. Dr. Jackson: Good job. So far, what I am hearing, though, refers to male gang membership. What about females? Did anyone find any research on their role in gang activity? I did. Although there are a few girl gangs, females are generally not considered Bill: members of the male-dominated gang. They are viewed as more of a support system, and an extended social group-friends and girlfriends to party with. Sandy: That's what I found, too.

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Audio 34. What was surprising about Thrasher's study? Answer (D) "...gangs have been prevalent for much longer than I had assumed. I was so surprised." The number in Choice (A) is true, but it was not what surprised the student. Choice (C) is not correct because not much has changed over the years. Choice (B) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the discussion. Audio 35. According to the study by Moore, what causes gang activity? Answer (B) ". . . Joan Moore, indicated that gang behavior is probably caused by normal adolescent insecurities. . . ." Choice (A) refers to a similar form of behavior but not to the cause of gang activity. Choice (C)

refers to the neighborhoods where gang activity takes place, but they are not the cause of gang activity. Choice (D) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the discussion.

Audio 36. In which two ways are gang members identified by law enforcement authorities? Answer ( A )(B) ". . . a gang member will be recognizable because of gang-related tattoos, clothing. . . ." The phrase research stdies in Choice (D) refers to the research reported in the discussion, not to ways that gang members are identified. Choice (C) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the discussion. Audio 37. What is the role of women in gangs? Answer ( C ) "They [women] are viewed as more of a support system. . . ." Choice (A) is not correct because women are not considered members of gangs. Choice (D) is not correct because women are part of -&-extended social group of a gang. Choice (B) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the discussion.

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EXPLANATORY ANSWERS AND AUDIO SCRIPTS

Audio Conversation Narrator: Listen to part of a conversation between a student and a professor in the professor's office. Mary: Dr. Brown: Mary: Dr. Brown: Mav: Dr. Brown: Mary: Dr. Brown: Mary: Dr. Brown: Mary: Dr. Brown: Mary: Dr. Brown: Mary :

Dr. Brown:

Mary: Dr. Brown:

Dr. Brown, could I speak with you for a minute? Sure, Mary. Come in. I'm afraid I have a problem. Oh? You see, I really like my job here. That's good. Because we really like having you here. Thank you. But the problem is I won't be able to work here next semester. You see, I have a problem with my schedule at school. Well, what exactly is the problem? I have a required class at nine o'clock on Monday, Wednesday, and Friday. Oh. Okay. Remind me what your hours are here. I work from nine to one every day. Which has been great, because I have been able to schedule all my classes in the afternoon, until now. I. see. When does the class end? It's a three-hour class, so it meets for an hour three times a week. So you're finished at ten. Yes. And it would take me half an hour to get here after class, so you see, I would be an hour and a half late on those days. Well, we need someone four hours a day. But, how about this-you could come in at ten-thirty on Monday, Wednesday, and Friday, and work until two-thirty on those days. That would give you a fairly late lunch, but if that's not a problem for you, then we can do it. That would be great. So I'd just keep my regular hours on Tuesday and Thursday then. Right. Listen, Mary. You're a work-study employee, and that means that you have two responsibilities-to work and to study. We know that. As long as you put in the hours to get the job done, we expect to fit your work hours around your school schedule. And don't forget, you can study on the job as long as the work is done first.

1 Audio 38. What is Mary's problem?

Now get ready to answer the questions

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Answer (B) "I have a problem with my schedule." Choice (A) is not correct because Mary really likes her job. Choice (D) is not correct because she is a work-study employee. Choice (C) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation.

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Audio 39. When is Mary's class next semester? Answer (D) "I have a required class at nine o'clock on Monday, Wednesday, and Friday." The phrase every day in Choice (A) refers to her work schedule, not to her class schedule. The phrase ten-thirty on Monday in Choice (C) refers to the time she will report to work, not to the time for her class. Choice (B) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio 40. How does Dr. Brown resolve the problem? Answer ( A ) "...you could come in at ten-thi.rty . . . and work until two-thirty. . . ." Choice (B) is not correct because she will continue to work four hours a day. Choice (D) is not correct because he changes her work schedule. Choice (C) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio 41. What is a work-study employee? Answer ( C ) "You're a work-study employee, and that means . . . you can study on the job as long as the work is done first." Choice (A) is true, but it is not a complete definition of a work-study employee. Choices (B) and (D) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio Lecture Narrator: Listen to part of a lecture in an engineering class. In recent years, we have developed several techniques for building more earthquake-resistant structures. For relatively small buildings, all we have to do is bolt the buildings to their foundations and provide some support walls. These walls are referred to as shear walls in your textbook. They are made of reinforced concrete, and by that I mean concrete with steel rods embedded in it. This not only strengthens the structure but also diminishes the forces that tend to shake a building during a quake. In addition to the shear walls that surround a building, shear walls can be situated in the center of a building around an elevator shaft or a stairwell. This is really an excellent reinforcement. It is commonly known as a shear core, and it, too, contains reinforced concrete. Walls can also be reinforced, using a technique called cross-bracing. Imagine steel beams that cross diagonally from the ceiling to the floor of each story in a building. Before the walls are finished, you can see a vertical row of steel x's on the structure. Besides steel reinforcements, engineers have also devised base isolators, which are positioned below the building to absorb the shock of the sideways shaking that can undermine a building and cause it to collapse. Most of the base isolators that are currently being used are made of alternating layers of steel and synthetic rubber. The steel is for strength, but the rubber absorbs shock waves. In higher buildings, a moat of flexible materials allows the building to sway during seismic activity.

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The combination of a reinforced structure and flexible materials has been proven to reduce earthquake damage. But even these engineering techniques are insufficient if the building has been constructed on filled ground. Soil used in fill dirt can lose its bearing strength when subjected to the shock waves of an earthquake, and the buildings constructed on it can literally disappear into the Earth. In areas where earthquakes are known to occur, understanding the terrain and using the techniques we have discussed today can greatly reduce property damage, and can save lives as well. Now get ready to answer the questions

Audio 42. What is the topic of this lecture?

Answer (C) ". . . we have developed several techniques for building more earthquake-resistant structures." Choices (A), (B), and (D) are all mentioned in the lecture, but they are secondary ideas used to develop the main topic of the lecture. Audio 43. Which technique is used to reinforce walls? Answer ( A ) "Walls can also be reinforced, using . . . cross-bracing." Choice (B) refers to a structure in the center of a building. Choice (D) refers to a device positioned below the building. Choice (C) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the lecture. Ald0 44. Which two materials are used in base isolators? Answer ( A )( B ) "Most. . . base isolators . . . are made o f . . . layers of steel and synthetic rubber." Choice (C) refers to construction material but not to material used in base isolators. Choice (D) refers to fill dirt. Audio 45. What happens to fill dirt during an earthquake?

Answer (C) ". . . fill dirt can lose its bearing strength . . . and the buildings constrm6d on it can . . . disappear into the Earth." Choice (A) refers to the characteristics of a moat, not to those of fill dirt. Choice (B) refers to the techniques for building earthquake-resistant structures. The phrase shock waves in Choice (D) refers to the advantage of rubber, not to a characteristic of fill dirt.

MODEL TEST 2-COMPUTER-ASSISTED TOEFL

Audio Lecture Narrator: Listen to part of a lecture in a botany lab. The lab assistant is talking about leaves. Food and water are canied throughout leaves by their veins. Today we will be looking at some examples of the main types of vein patterns in leaves. The most common are the pinnate and the palmate. This is a pinnate leaf, which is characteristic of trees like the beech and birch that you see outside this building on campus.

Remember that a pinnate leaf has one large central vein called the midrib, with large veins branching off on each side of it. The midrib extends the full length of the leaf.

Notice how different this leaf is. This is an example of a palmate leaf from a maple tree. A good way to remember this classification is to think of the palm of your hand. In a palmate leaf, there are several main veins of about equal size that originate at the base of the leaf and extend out to the edge of the leaf like fingers.

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EXPLANATORY ANSWERS AND AUDIO SCRIPTS

A few very narrow leaves are neither pinnate nor palmate. This leaf of grass for example has a parallel pattern.

Several veins extend themselves from the base of the blade to the tip, as you can see here. Needle leaves are so small that they only have one, or occasionally two, veins in the center of the needle. I don't have a good slide of a needle leaf, but there is a drawing in your lab manual for you to refer to. Now, I'd like you to turn to chapter three in the manual, and use page fifty-two as a reference for your lab activity. You will find twenty leaves in a plastic bag on your lab table. Please work with your lab partner to classify the veining of each leaf. Now get ready to answer the questions

Audio 46. Which two types represent the most common vein patterns in leaves? Answer ( C ) (D) '"The most common [vein patterns] are the pinnate and the palmate." Choices (A) and (B) refer to vein patterns, but they are not the most common vein patterns. Audio 47. According to the lecturer, what is a midrib? Answer (B) ". . . a pinnate leaf has one large central vein called the midrib . :!fthat] extends the full length of the leaf." Choice (A) is not correct because the pinnate leaf, not the midrib, is one of the major classifications. Choice (C) is not correct because the midrib is a central vein in the pinnate, not the parallel, leaf. Choice (D) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the lecture.

Audio 48. How does the lab assistant help students remember the palmate classification? Answer ( C ) "A good way to remember this classification [palmate] is to think of the palm of your hand." Choices (A) and (B) are both true, but she did not use the visual or the explanation as a memory aid.

Audio 49. Match the leaves with their vein patterns. Answer (B) Pinnate (A) Palmate (C) Parallel Audio 50. What will the students probably do after the short lecture?

Answer (A) ". . . work with your lab partner to classify the veining of each leaf." The word Jifry-fwo in Choice (C) refers to the page number in the lab manual, not to the number of pages to read. Choices (B) and (D) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the lecture.

Section 2: Structure 1. (A)In some dependent clauses, the clause marker is the subject of the dependent clause. Which refers to the soybeans and is the subject of the verb can be used. Choices ( B ) and (D) do not have clause markers. Choice (C) is a clause marker that refers to a person, not to soybeans. 2. ( A ) Only Choice (A) may be used with a count noun like species and a number. Choices (C) and @) may be used with noncount nouns. Choice (B) may be used with count nouns without a number. "As many species of finch have been identified" would also be correct. 3. (C) The verb had establishes a point of view in the past. Serves should be served in order to maintain the point of view. 4. (D) There must be agreement between subject and verb. Produce should be produces to agree with the singular subject a thunderhead. 5. (C) When the degree of one quality, the price, is dependent upon the degree of another quality, the demand, two comparatives are required, each of which must be preceded by the. Choice (A) is a comparative, but it is not preceded by the. Choices (B) and (D) are not accepted comparative forms. 6. (B) The same like is a combination of the sahe as and like. Like should be as in the I with the same. phrase

7. (A) Despite of is a combination of despite and in spite of. Either despite or in spite of should be used. 8. (C) So is used with an adjective to express cause. Choice (A) may be used before a noun, not before an adjective such as big. Choices (B) and (D) may not be used to express cause before a clause of result such as that there are four time zones. "The United States is very big" would be correct without the clause of result. 9. (A) Ideas in a series should be expressed by parallel structures. Only Choice (A) has three parallel -ing forms. Choices (B), (C), and (D) are not parallel. 10. (A) Behave should be behavior. Behave is a verb. Behavior is a noun. 11. (B) Whom should be who because it is the subject of the verb is. Whom functions as a complement. Who functions as a subject. 12. ( A )Such as is commonly used to introduce an example. 13. (A) An introductory verbal phrase should immediately precede the noun that it modifies. Only Choice (A) provides a noun that could be logically modified by the introductory verbal phrase upon hatching. Swimming, the knowledge, and how to swim could not logically hatch as would be implied by Choices (B), (C), and (D). 14. (B) Comparative foims are usually followed by than. Highest in Choices ( A )and (C) may

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EXPLANATORY ANSWERS AND ALlDlO SCRIPTS

be used to compare more than two decks. Choice (D) correctly compares this deck with any other one, but that, not than, follows the comparative. 15. (D) A verb word must be used in a clause after the verb to insist. Will not smoke should be not smoke. 16. (C) Invent should be invention. Invent is a verb. Inventioia is a noun. 17. (C) Calcium is the subject of the verb is. Choice (A) may be used with the word that. Choice (B) may be used as a subject clause preceding a main verb. Choice (D) may be used preceding a subject and verb. "It is calcium that is necessary for the development of strong bones and teeth." "That calcium is necessary for the development of strong bones and teeth is known," and "Although calcium is necessary for strong bones and teeth, other minerals are also important" would also be correct. 18. (C) Larger should be largest. Because there are more than two masses of nerve tissue in the human body, a superlative form must be used. 19. (A) Like is a preposition. Alike should be like. 20. (C) Capable of is a prepositional idiom. To perform should be of performing. 21. (A) For scientific results, a present form in the condition requires a present or future form in the result. Only Choice (A) introduces a conditional. 22. (A) Repetition of the subject by a subject pronoun is redundant. It should be deleted. 23. (B) A negative phrase introduces inverted order. Not until requires an auxiliary verb, subject, and main verb. In Choice (A) there is no auxiliary. In Choices (C) and (D), there is no subject and no auxiliary. 24. (B) The verb phrase to approve of requires an -ing form in the complement. -Ing forms are modified by possessive pronouns. Choices (A) and (D) are infinitives, not -ing forms. Choice (C) is an -ing form, but it is modified by a subject, not a possessive pronoun. 25. (B) Commoialy should be common. Commonly is an adverb. Common is an adjective.

Section 3: Reading 1. (A) The other choices are secondary ideas that are used to develop the main idea, "Technological Advances in Oceanogra-

phy." Choices (B), (C), and (D) are important to the discussion, and provide details that support the main idea. 2. (C) In the context of this passage, m m is closest in meaning to SIXWmoving. Choices (A), (B), and (D) are not accepted definitions of the word. 3. (A) "Because of undersea pressure that affected their speech organs, communication among divers was difficult or impossible." Choices (B), (C), and (D) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the passage. 4. (A) "Direct observations of the ocean floor are made not only by divers but also by deepdiving submarines." Choices (B), (C), and (D) are not correct because observations are made by deep-diving submarines as well as by divers. 5. (D) "Direct observations of the ocean floor are made .. . by deep-diving submarines." Choice (A) is not correct because some of the vehicles are manned. Choice (B) refers to the divers, not to the undersea vehicles. Choice (C) is not correct because undersea vehicles have overcome some of the lirnitations of divers. 6. (A) In the context of this passage. could best be replaced by travel;?t a ' E o w 3 % 7 E s Choices ~. (B), (C), and (D) are not accepted definitions of the word. 7. @) "Radio-equipped buoys can be operated by remote control in order to transmit information back to the land-based laboratories." Choices (A), (B), and (C) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the passage. 8. In the context of this passage, the word EEf is closest in meaning to mCim0T. No other words or phrases in the bold text are close to the mea g of the word info7mmlii. 9. (C) Choices (A), ( ) and (D) are mentioned in sentences 8 and 9, paragraph 1. Choice (C) refers to computers, not to satellites. 10. "Some of humankind's most serious problems, especially those [problems] concerning energy and food, may be solved with the help of observations made possible by this new technology." Other choices would change the meaning of the sentence.

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MODEL TEST 2-COMPUTER-ASSISTED

11. "Some of humankind's most serious problems, especially those concerning energy and food, may be solved with the help of observations made possible by thls new technology." Quotation from sentence 2, paragraph 2. 12. (C) "Communication" is the best title because it states the main idea of the passage. The other choices are all examples of communication that provide details in support of the main idea. 13. (D) "Whereas speech is the most advanced form of communication.. .." Choice (A) is not correct because there are many ways to communicate without speech including signals, signs, symbols, and gestures. Choice (B) is not correct because the advances are dependent upon speech; speech is not dependent upon the advances. Choice (C) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the passage. 14. "For instance, the function of any signal is to impinge upon the environment in such a way that it attracts attention, as for example, the dots and dashes that can be applied in a telegraph circuit." Quotation from sentence 4, paragraph 1. 15. (A) In the context of this passage, 6 p m is closest in meaning to intrude. Choices (B), (C), and (D) are not accepted definitions of the word. 16. (B) "The basic function of a signal is to impinge upon the environment in such a way that it [the signal] attracts attention, as, for example, the dots and dashes of a telegraph circuit." Choices (A), (C), and (D) would change the meaning of the sentence. 17. (D) In the context of this passage, m a 1 could best be replaced by Fssibility. Choices (A), (B), and (C) are not accepted definitions of the word. 18. "Less adaptable to the codification of words, signs also contain agreed upon meaning; that is, they [signs] convey information in and of themselves [the signs]." Other choices would change the meaning of the sentence. 19. (B) In the context of this passage, 73iEXCE could best be 'replaced by complicated Choices (A), (C), and (D) are not accepted definitions of the word. 20. (C) "...applauding in a theater provides performers with an auditory symbol." A tele-

TOEFL

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graph circuit was cited as an example of Choice (A). A stop sign and a barber pole were cited as examples of Choice (B). Waving and handshaking were cited as examples of Choice (D). "A loud smacking of the lips after a meal can be either a kinesthetic and auditory symbol of approval and appreciation, or simply a rude noise. Gestures such as waving and handshaking also communicate certain cultural messages." The connection between the two sentences is the reference to cultural symbols and cultural messages. The second sentence with the word also must be mentioned after the first sentence. 22. (B) "...means of communication intended to be used for long distances and extended periods are based upon speech. Radio, television, and telephone are only a few." Choices (A), (C), and (D) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the passage. 23. In the context of this passage, the word ;fiFrEfRR is closest in meaning to 'c3Ri1"'t-';cation. No other words or phrases in the bold text are close to the meaning of the word ~M'UR?T?%%. 24. (D) Choices (A), (B), and (C) are important to the discussion and provide details that support the primary topic, "the content, form, and effects of fertilizer." 25. (D) In the context of this passage, meRfi;ll could best be replaced by r2mre'il. Choices (A), (B), and (C) are not accepted definitions of the word. 26. (D) Since the last number in the formula represents the percentage content of potash, and since the last number is the smallest, it must be concluded that potash has the smallest percentage content. Choice (A) refers to the number 4 in the formula. Choices (B) and (C) are the substances found in phosphoric acid which refers to the number 8 in the formula. (B) Since the content of nitrogen is represented by the first number in the formula, it must be concluded that there is 5 percent nitrogen in the fertilizer. The number in Choice (A) refers to the quantity of numbers in the formula. The percentage in Choice (C) refers to potash. The percentage in Choice (D) refers to phosphoric acid.

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EXPLANATORY ANSWERS AND AUDIO SCRIPTS

28. (B) In the context of this passage, Choices could best be replaced by (A), (C), and (D) are not accepted definitions of the word. 29. (C) "Recently, liquids have shown an increase in popularity.. .." Choice (A) refers to a form of fertilizers that used to be used, but was found to be less convenient, not to a forrn that is more popular than ever. Choices (B) and (D) are not correct because solids in the shape of chemical granules are easy to store and apply. 30. (A) "Formerly, powders were also used, but these [powders] were found to be less convenient than either solids or liquids." Choices (B), (C), and (D) would change the meaning of the sentence. 31. (C) In the context of this passage, is closest in meaning to easy to use. Choices (A), (B), and (D) are not accepted definitions of the word. 32. "Accumulations of chemical fertilizer in the water supply accelerate the growth of algae and, consequently, may disturb the natural cycle of life, contributing to the death of fish." Quotation from sentence 5, paragraph 3. 33. In the context of this passage, the word E3fhW is closest in meaning to m.No other words or phrases in the bold text are close to the meaning of the word ham. 34. "Formerly, powders were also used, but these were found to be less convenient than either solids or liquids. One objection to powders was their propensity to become solid chunks if the bags got damp." The connection between the two sentences is the reference to "powders." The first sentence is a general sentence, and the second sentence is an example. 35. (A) The other choices are secondary ideas that are used to develop the main idea, "the evolution of the horse." Choices (B), (C), and (D) are significant steps in the evolution. 36. (D) Choices (A), (B), and (C) are mentioned in sentence 3, paragraph 1. The Miocene Age is the earliest historical period mentioned in the passage. 37. (B) In the context of this passage, could best be replaced by T R u .~Choices (A), (C), and (D) are not accepted definitions of the word. 38. (A) Choice (A) is a restatement of the sentence referred to in the passage. Since horses

wm.

appeared 60 million years ago and humans appeared two million years ago, it must be concluded that horses appeared long before human beings. 39. (A) ". ..a horse crossed.. .from Alaska into the grasslands of Europe." Because of the reference to grasslands, it must be concluded that the hipparions migrated to Europe to feed in developing grasslands. Choice (B) is not correct because the European colonists brought horses to North America where the species had become extinct. Choice (D) is not correct because the evolution of the horse has been recorded from its beginnings through all of its evolutionary stages. 40. (C) "...smaller than the hipparion, the anchitheres was completely replaced by it." Choice (A) refers to the very early form of the horse, not to the hipparion. Choice (B) is not correct because the hipparion was a more highly evolved form than the anchitheres. Choice (D) is not correct because the hipparion was about the size of a small pony. 41. (B) "Less developed and smaller than the hipparion, the anchitheres was completely replaced by it [the hipparion]." Choices (A), (C), and (D) would change the meaning of the sentence. 42. ( C ) In the context of this passage, ?TTRRT is closest in meaning to 7!OlETRtem. Choices (A), (B), and (D) are not accepted definitions of the word. 43. "Fossil finds provide us not only with detailed information about the horse itself, but also with valuable insights into the migration of herds, and even evidence for speculation about the climatic conditions that could have instigated such migratory behavior." Quotation from sentence 3, paragraph 1. 44. In the context of this passage, ERllFff is closest in meaning to fiilTBmted. No other words or phrases in the bold text are close to the meaning of the ord domesfERi3. 45. (A) "At the beginn ng of the Pliocene Age, a horse.. .crossed.. .into the grasslands of Europe. The horse was the hipparion.. ..The hipparion encountered.. .the anchitheres, which had previously invaded Europe ... probably during the Miocene Period." Because the anchitheres invaded Europe during the Miocene and was already there when the hlpparion arrived in the Pliocene, it must

I

MODEL TEST 2-COMPUTER-ASSISTED

be concluded that the Miocene Period was prior to the Pliocene Period. By the Pleistocene referred to in Choices (B) and (C), the anchitheres and the hipparion had become extinct. Therefore, the Pleistocene Period must have been after both the Miocene and the Pliocene.

Writing Section Question: Read and think about the following statement: Pets should be treated like family members. Do you agree or disagree with the statement? Give reasons to support your opinion.

Outline Agree that pets should be treated like family members Children-learn how to care for brother, sister Couple-substitute for babies Disabled, elderly-help, caring like family members Every stage in life

Agree

Children

Couple

Disabled, elderly

Care brother, sister

Substitute babies

Help

Every stage in life

Example Essay Although the argument has been made that money spent on pets could better be directed to

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programs that provide assistance for needy people, I agree that pets should be treated like family members because they live in our homes and interact with us like family members do. Often parents allow children to have pets in order to teach them to be responsible. By feeding, walking, and grooming a dog, children learn to be dependable and kind. Parents expect their children to take care of the pets as if they were members of the family in order to learn these valuable lessons. For many children, a dog or a kitten is also a best friend and a wonderful way to learn how to treat a new brother or sister when the family expands. Besides the friendship that children enjoy with animals, pets can substitute for the absence of other family members. Sometimes a couple who is unable to have children will adopt pets and treat them like babies. They shower the love on their cats that they might have provided a child and receive affection and companionship in return. Many people who are living alone enjoy the companionship of a pet instead of loved ones who are at a distance or have passed away. The pet becomes a family member for these people and deserves the same kind of treatment that a family member would receive. Many articles have appeared in the popular press citing the benefits of pets to the disabled and the elderly. In addition to the usual services that pets may provide, such as bringing objects to their owners or helping a vision-impaired owner to walk in unfamiliar surroundings, there is evidence that pets actually extend the life expectancy of their owners. In a real sense, these pets are caring for their owners like family members would, and for this reason, they should be treated like family. At every stage in life we interact with our pets in the same ways that we interact with family. Children, young married couples, and elderly people have reason to treat their pets like family members.

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EXPLANATORY ANSWERS AND AUDIO SCRIPTS

Section 1:Listening The Listening Section of the test measures the ability to understand conversations and talks in English. On the qctual TOEFL exam, you will use headphones to listen to the conversations and talks. While you are listening, pictures of the speakers or other information will be presented on your computer screen. There aye two parts to the Listening Section, with special directions for each part. On the day of the test, the amount of time you will have to answer all of the questions will appear on the computer screen. The time you spend listening to the test material will not be counted. The listening material and questions about it will be presented only one time. You will not be allowed to take notes or have any paper at your computer. You will both see and hear the questions before the answer choices appear. You can take as much time as you need to select an answer; however, it will be to your advantage to answer the questions as quickly as possible. You may change your answer as many times as you want before you confirm it. After you have confirmed an answer, you will not be able to return to the question. Before you begin working on the Listening Section, you will have an opportunity to adjust the volume of the sound. You may not be able to change the volume after you have started the test.

QUESTION DIRECTIONS-Part A In Part A of the Listening Section, you will hear short conversations between two people. In some of the conversations, each person speaks only once. In other conversations, one or both of the people speak more than once. Each conversation is followed by one question about it. Each question in this part has four answer choices. You should click on the best answer to each question. Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers. Audio 1 . Man: Woman: Narrator:

It doesn't make any sense for us to go home for spring vacation now. Especially since we'll be graduating in May. What does the woman mean?

Answer (A) Since the woman agrees with the man, it must be concluded that she will not go home for spring vacation. Choice (C) is not correct because she will be graduating in May. Choices (B) and (D) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation.

MODEL TEST 3--COMPUTER-ASSISTED TOEFL

Audio 2. Man: Woman: Narrator:

543

Could you please explain the assignment for Monday, Miss Smith? Certainly. Read the next chapter in your textbook and come to class prepared to discuss what you've read. What are the speakers talking about?

Answer ( C ) From the reference to the assignment for Monday, it must be concluded that the speakers are talking about homework. Choices (A), (B), and (D) are all mentioned in the conversation in reference to the assignment. Audio 3 . Woman: Man: Narrator:

Are you ready for this? I should be. I've been cramming for the past three days, What does the man mean?

Answer ( C ) Cramming is an idiomatic expression that means "studying a lot," especially just before a test. Choices (A), (B), and (D) are not correct because the man is confident about being ready for the test. Audio 4. Man: Woman: Narrator:

I need a book for English two-twenty-one. All of the textbooks are on the shelves in the back of the store. What will the man probably do?

Answer (A) Since the man says that he needs a book for an English course, it must be concluded that he will buy the textbook. Choice (C) is not correct because he is already in the bookstore. Choice (D) is not correct because he needs a book for the course. Choice (B) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio 5. Man: Woman: Man: Woman: Narrator:

You're in my economics class, aren't you? Yes. I'm not an economics major, though. So, what do you think of Professor Collins? I think he's a great person, but the class just turns me off. What does the woman mean?

Answer (A) To turn someone o f is an idiomatic expression that means the speaker "does not like" something or someone. Choice (D) is not correct because the woman does not like the class. Choice (C) is not correct because the woman thinks Professor Collins is a great person. Choice (B) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation.

Audw 6. Man: Woman: Narrator:

Have you made an appointment with Dr. Peterson's T.A. yet? No. And I really can't put it off anymore. What will the woman probably do?

Answer ( A )To not put off is an idiomatic expression that means to "stop postponing." Choices (B) and (C) are not correct because the woman has not made an appointment yet. Choice (D) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audw 7. Woman: Man: Narrator:

How do you like American food? I'm used to it now. What does the man mean?

Answer ( C ) To be used to something is an idiomatic expression that means to be "accustomed to" something. Choices (A), (B), and (D) are not paraphrases of the expression and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. .Audio 8. Woman: Man: Narrator:

Are you still studying? It's two o'clock in the morning. I know. I just can't seem to get caught up. What does the man mean?

Answer ( C ) To get caught up is an idiomatic expression that means to "bring work or assignments up to date." Choice (B) is not correct because the man says he knows what time it is. Choices (A) and (D) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio 9. Man: Woman: Narrator:

It's your turn to call the names on the list if you want to. I think 1'11 pass this time. What is the woman going to do?

Answer (D) To pass is an idiomatic expression that means to "agree to lose a turn." Choices (A), (B), and (C) are not paraphrases of the expression and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio 10. Woman: Man: Narrator:

I'm pretty sure that the deadline for applications has passed. Why don't you let me look into it for you? What does the man mean?

Answer ( B ) To look into something is an idiomatic expression that means to "investigate." Choice (A) refers to the woman's conclusion, not to the man's intention. Choices (C) and (D) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio 11. Man: Woman: Man: Narrator:

This is the first time I've had to get a tutor. What seems to be the problem? Well, I understand the lectures but I get mixed up when I try to read the book. What does the man mean?

MODEL TEST 3--COMPUTER-ASSISTED TOEFL

545

Answer (A)To get mixed up is an idiomatic expression that means to "become confused." Choice (C) is not correct because the man understands the lectures. Choices (B) and (D) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio 12. Man: Woman: Narrator:

The paper isn't due until next week. Yes, I know. But I wanted to turn it in ahead of time if that's all right. What does the woman mean?

Answer (A) To turn in is an idiomatic expression that means to "submit." Ahead of time means "early." Choice (C) is not correct because she wants to turn in the paper before it is due. Choice CD) is not correct because she is ready to turn in the paper. Choice (B) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio 13. Man: Woman: Narrator:

I can't stand this class! Well, you might as well get used to it. You have to take it in order to graduate. What does the woman say about the class?

Answer ( D ) "You have to take it [the class] in order to graduate." Choice (A) refers to the man's attitude, not to the woman's opinion. Choice (B) is not correct because the class is required for graduation. Choice (C) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio 14. Woman: Man: Narrator:

How are you going to get ready for an oral final? The professor said we should study alone, but the T.A. said to get into a study group and quiz each other. What did the T.A. suggest the students do?

Answer (A) ". . . the T.A. said to get into a study group and quiz each other." Choice (B) refers to the type of exam that they will be given, not to the T.A.'s suggestion. Choice (C) refers to quizzes, but the T.A. suggests that they "quiz each other," which means to ask each other questions. Choice (D) is not correct because the professor recommends studying alone, not in a group. Audio 15. Man: Woman: Narrator:

I need an advisor's signature on my course request form. Could I make an appointment, please? Oh, well, you don't need to make an appointment. Just wait here. I'll get a pen. What is the woman going to do?

Answer ( C ) Since the woman goes to get a pen, it must be concluded that she will sign the form. Choice (A) is not correct because the woman says he doesn't need an appointment. Choice (B) refers to the pen that the woman, not the man, will use. Choice (D) is not correct because the man is asked to wait for the woman.

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EXPLANATORY ANSWERS AND AUDIO SCRIPTS

Audio 16. Woman: Man: Woman: Narrator:

Thanks for reading my paper. Sure. This copy looks good. Why don't you just hand it in? No, I'd better make one more draft. What is the woman going to do?

Answer ( A ) "I'd better make one more draft." A "draft" is a revision of written work. Choice (D) refers to the man's suggestion, not to what the woman is going to do. Choices (B) and (C) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio 17. Woman: Man: Narrator:

Your loan payment is due on the first. Oh, sorry, the computer has you scheduled for the fifth. That's good. That's what I thought. What had the man assumed about the loan payment?

Answer ( B ) "That's what I thought [that the computer . . . scheduled for the fifth]. Choice (C) refers to the woman's original statement, not to her final conclusion. Choice (D) is not correct because payments are still due. Choice (A) refers to an error made by the woman, not the computer.

QUESTION DIRECTIONS-Part B In Part B of the Listening Section, you will hear several longer conversations and talks. Each conversation or talk is followed by several questions. The conversations, talks, and questions will not be repeated. The conversations and talks are about a variety of topics. You do not need special knowledge of the topics to answer the questions correctly. Rather, you should answer each question on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in the conversations or talks. For most of the questions, you will need to click on the best of four possible answers. Some questions will have special directions. The special directions will appear in a box on the computer screen. Audio Conversation Listen to a conversation between a student and a professor. Narrator: Woman: Man: Woman: Man: Woman: Man: Woman: Man: Woman: Man:

Hello, Professor Hayes. I'm Betty Peterson. I'm in your senior seminar this semester. Oh, yes, Betty. How are you? Just fine, thanks. I'm here because I'm applying for graduate school, and I need three letters of recommendation. Would you be willing to write me one? Why yes, Betty. I'd be happy to. I think you are an excellent candidate for graduate school. Are you applying here or to another university? Here. That's why I think your letter is so important. Everyone on the selection committee knows and respects you. Let's see, Dr. Warren is the chair of that committee, isn't she? Yes. So, if you would just write the letter to her, that would be great. Okay. And when do you need this? I don't recall the deadline for applications. The committee meets on April 30, so all the materials must be submitted before then. All right. I'll send it directly to her office. --

MODEL TEST 3--COMPUTER-ASSISTED TOEFL

Woman: Man:

547

Thank you. I really appreciate it. You're welcome. Glad to do it. Now get ready to answer the questions

Audio 18. Why did Betty see Professor Hayes? Answer ( D ) ". . . I need three letters of recommendation. Would you be willing to write me one?" Choice ('4) is not correct because Betty is already in the professor's seminar class. Choice (C) refers to additional information that the professor gives to Betty, not to the purpose of her visit. Choice (B) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio 19. What does Professor Hayes think about Betty? Answer ( B ) "I think you are an excellent candidate for graduate school." Choice (A) is not correct because Betty is already taking the seminar. Choice (D) is not correct because the professor does not recall the deadline for applications. Choice (C) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio 20. Who will decide whether Betty is accepted to the program? Answer ( B ) "The committee meets on April 30." Choices (A) and (D) refer to the person who will receive the letter, not to who will make the decision. Choice (C) refers to the person who will make a recommendation. Audio 21. When does Betty need to submit all her materials? Answer ( C ) "The committee meets on April 30, so all the materials must be submitted before then." Choice (A) is not correct because the materials must be submitted before April 30. Choices (B) and (D) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio Lecture Narrator: ~ i & nto a lecture by a history professor. I know that this is probably a digression from the topic of today's lecture, but it is worth noting that although England no longer ruled her former colonies after the eighteenth centuly, she controlled trade with them by selling products so cheaply that it was not possible for the new countries to manufacture and compete with English prices. To maintain this favorable balance of trade, England went to fantastic lengths to keep secret the advanced manufacturing processes upon which such a monopoly depended. Enterprising Americans made all kinds of ingenious attempts to smuggle drawings for the most modem machines out of England, but it was an Englishman, Samuel Slater, who finally succeeded.

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Although textile workers were forbidden to emigrate, Slater traveled to the United States in secret. Determined to take nothing in writing, he memorized the intricate designs for all the machines in an English textile mill, and in partnership with Moses Brown, a Quaker merchant, recreated the mill in Rhode Island. Forty-five years later, in part as a result of the initial model by Slater and Brown, America had changed from a country of small farmers and craftsmen to an industrial nation in competition with England. Now get ready to answer the questions

Audio 22. Who is the speaker? Answer ( B ) Because the speaker is introduced as a professor of history and discusses trade during the eighteenth century, it must be concluded that she is a professor of history. It is not as probable that the lecturers mentioned in Choices (A), (C), and (D) would discuss this topic. Audio 23. According to the speaker, how did England control trade in the eighteenth century? Answer ( C )"To maintain this favorable balance of trade, England went to fantastic lengths to keep secret the advanced manufacturing processes. . . ." Choice (D) is not correct because the colony [America], not England, stole the plans. Choices (A) and (B) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the talk. Audio 24. What did Samuel Slater do? Answer ( C ) "Determined to take nothing in writing, he [Slater] memorized the intricate designs for all the machines in an English textile mill. . . ." Choices (A) and (B) are not correct because Slater, in partnership with Brown, opened a mill in the United States in the state of Rhode Island. Choice (D) is not correct because he took nothing in writing. Audio 25. What happened as a result of the Slater-Brown partnership? Answer ( A ) ". . . in part as a result of Slater and Brown, America had changed from a country of small farmers and craftsmen to an industrial nation. . . ." Choices (B), (C), and (D) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the talk. Audw Conversation Narrator: Listen to part of a conversation between a student and an employee in the bookstore on campus. Man: Woman:

Hi. I understand that I can reserve textbooks for next semester. That's right. If you know what courses you will be taking, we can have your order waiting for you the week before classes start. --.

MODEL TEST 3-COMPUTER-ASSISTED TOEFL

Man: Woman:

Man: Woman:

Man: Woman: Man: Woman:

549

Great! This semester I couldn't get two of my books until three weeks into the semester because you ran out of them before I made it to the bookstore. That has been a problem for a lot of students, and that's why we are trying this system. If we know that you want them, we can order books right away instead of waiting until faculty members place their orders for the whole class. What do I have to do? Just fill out one of these forms. Be sure that you include both the course number and the section number for each course because different instructors may not be using the same books. Then pay for your books at the register, and we'll place the order. Then do I just stop by the bookstore at the beginning of the semester? There's a space for your phone number on the form. We'll call you as soon as they come in. Sometimes we get them before the end of the current semester. That would be great. Then I could take them home with me over the break to get a head start on the reading. Quite a few students do that now. Now get ready to answer the questions

Audio 26. What is the purpose of this conversation? Answer ( A )"I understand that I can reserve textbooks for next semester." Choice (B) is true, but it is a comment, not the purpose of the conversation. Choice (C) is not correct because the faculty member, not the woman, orders books for the whole class. Choice (D) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio 27. What was the man's problem last semester? Answer ( B ) "This semester I couldn't get two of my books until three weeks into the semester. . . ." Choice (C) is not correct because he received his books three weeks after the semester started. Choice (D) refers to this semester, not last semester. Choice (A) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio 28. How can the man order books? Answer (B) "Just fill out one of these forms. . . . Then pay for your books . . . and we'll place the order." Choice (A) is true but refers to ordering books for the whole class. Choices (C) and (D) are not mentioned and may not be cdncluded from information in the conversation. Audw 29. How will the man know that the books have arrived? Answer (B) "We'll call you as soon as they [the books] come in." Choice (C) refers to the student's question about receiving his books, not how he will know when the books arrive. The word form in Choice (A) refers to the system for ordering books, not to the way to know that books have arrived. Choice (D) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation.

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EXPLANATORY ANSWERS AND AUDIO SCRIPTS

Audio Talk Narrator: Listen to a talk by a college instructor in an English class. So many different kinds of writing have been called essays, it is difficult to define exactly what an essay is. Perhaps the best way is to point out four characteristics that are true of most essays. First, an essay is about one topic. It does not start with one subject and digress to another and another. Second, although a few essays are long enough to be considered a small book, most essays are short. Five hundred words is the most common length for an essay. Third, an essay is written in prose, not poetry. True, Alexander Pope did call two of his poems essays, but that word is part of a title, and after all, the "Essay on Man" and the "Essay on Criticism" really q e not essays at all. They are long poems. Fourth, and probably most important, an essay is personal. It is the work of one person whose purpose is to share a thought, idea, or point of view. Let me also state here that since an essay is always personal, the term "personal essay" is redundant. Now, taking into consideration all of these characteristics, perhaps we can now define an essay as a short, prose composition that has a personal viewpoint that discusses one topic. With that in mind, let's brainstorm some topics for your first essay assignment.

I

Now get ready to answer the questions

(

Audio 30. What is the instructor defining? Answer ( A )"So many different kinds of writing have been called essays, it is difficult to define exactly what an essay is." Choices (B), (C), and (D) are secondary themes used to develop a definition of the essay. Audw 31. What is the main point of the talk? Answer ( C ) ". . . four characteristics that are true of most essays." Choices (A), (B), and (D) are secondary themes used to develop the main theme of the talk. Audio 32. According to the talk, which of the characteristics are NOT true of an essay? Answer (B) ". . . an essay [is] a short, prose composition with a personal viewpoint that discusses one topic." Choice (B) is not correct because an essay is written in prose, not poetry. Choices (A), (C), and (D) are all included in the definition. Audw 33. What will the students probably do as an assignment? Answer (B) ". . . let's brainstorm some topics for your first essay assignment." Choices (A), (C), and (D) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation.

MODEL TEST 3--COMPUTER-ASSISTED TOEFL

551

Audw Talk Narrator: Listen to a talk by a guest speaker in a history class. Thomas Jefferson was a statesman, a dipomat, an author, and an architect. Not a gifted public speaker, Thomas Jefferson was most talented as a literary draftsman. Sent to Congress by the Virginia Convention in 1775, he was elected to the committee to draft a declaration of independence from England. Although John Adams and Benjamin Franklin also served on the committee, the composition of the Declaration of Independence belongs indisputably to Jefferson. In 1779, Jefferson was elected governor of the state of Virginia, an office he held until Congress appointed him to succeed Franklin as U.S. minister to France. Upon returning to Washington, he accepted the position of secretary of state. Although Jefferson was a Republican, he at first tried to cooperate with Alexander Hamilton, a Federalist who was first among President Washington's advisors. When he concluded that Hamilton was really in favor of a monarchy, hostility between the two men sharpened. Having served as vice-president in John Adams' administration, Jefferson ran for president in the election of 1800. He and Federalist Aaron Burr received an identical vote, but the Republican Congress elected to approve Jefferson as president. The most outstanding accomplishment of his administration was the purchase of the Louisiana Territory from France in 1803. He was easily re-elected in 1804. When he left office four years later, he returned here to Monticello, where he promoted the formation of a liberal university for Virginia. Now get ready to answer the questions

Audio 34. What is the main purpose of this talk? Answer ( D )The main purpose of this talk is to summarize Jefferson's life. Choices (A), (B), and (C) are secondary themes in the life of Jefferson. Audw 35. Jefferson was a member of which political group? Answer ( C ) "Although Jefferson was a Republican, he at first tried to cooperate with Alexander Hamilton, a Federalist. . . ." Choice (A) refers to Jefferson's opinion of Hamilton's political affiliation. Choice (B) refers to Hamilton, not Jefferson. Choice (D) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the talk. Audw 36. How did Jefferson become preside&? Answer (B) "He [Jefferson] and Federalist Aaron Burr received an identical vote, but the Republican Congress elected to approve Jefferson as president.'' Choice (A) is not correct because Jefferson and Burr received an identical vote. Choices (C) and (D) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation.

552

EXPLANATORY ANSWERS AND AUDIO SCRIPTS

Audio

37. According to the lecturer, what was it that Jefferson was NOT? Answer ( A ) "Thomas Jefferson was a statesman, a diplomat, an author, and an architect. . . . Not a gifted public speaker, he was most talented as a literary draftsman." Choices (B), (C), and (D) are all mentioned as attributes of Jefferson. ~ u d Lecture w Narrator: Listen to part of a lecture on geology. Fossils are the remains of organisms that have been preserved. Some of the most common fossils are shells, skeletons, leaves, and insects. They are occasionally preserved in ice, but most have been buried in mud or sand that collects at the bottom of bodies of water, especially lakes, swamps, and oceans. In order for fossils to form, the animals and plants must be buried quickly; otherwise, the organisms will disintegrate. If they are buried in loose sediment, the soft tissues will begin to decay. But the harder structures such as bones and shells will remain intact for much longer. After years of pressure from the layers of sediment above them, the lower layers of sediment turn into rock, encapsulating the organisms. There are several different mineral processes that continue the fossilization of organisms in the sedimentary rocks. A few plants and animals become fossilized after mineral-rich water soaks into the pores and openings in the hard tissues of the plant or animal. In these fossils, the original body of the organism is strengthened by the infusion of mineral deposits, and every detail of the organism is preserved. But in most fossils, the minerals in the water dissolve the original organism, leaving a fossil mold. Minerals continue to be deposited in the mold at the same time, a process that results in the replacement of the living organism by a mineral deposit of exactly the same shape. In the casts of these molds, the internal features of the organism are not preserved, but the outer structure is accurate in every detail. Sometimes the fine shapes of even very fragile feathers and fur are preserved by mineral replacement. Although the fossil record is incomplete, the composite of fossil findings chronicles the forms of life that existed at various periods in the past. In a sense, the fossil record is a history of life. The location of fossils in layers of undisturbed sedimentary rock shows not only which groups of organisms lived at approximately the same time but also indicates the order in which they were buried, that is, their relative ages. Plants and animals on the lower layers are presumed to be older than those buried after them in the layers above.

I

Now get ready to answer the questions

I

Audio

38. What are the two most common places where fossils may be found? Answer (B) ( C ) '"They [fossils] are occasionally preserved in ice, but most have been buried in mud or sand . . . at the bottom . . . of water. . . . " Choice (A) refers to a place where fossils are occasionally preserved, not the most usual place. Choice (D) refers to the location of the mud and sand, under water.

MODEL TEST >COMPUTER-ASSISTED

TOEFL

553

Audio 39. The professor briefly explains a process. Summarize the process by putting the events in order. Answer ( C ) (B) ( D ) (A) ". . . animals and plants must be buried quickly . . . mineral-rich water soaks into the . . . plant or animal. . . . Minerals in the water dissolve the original organism, leaving a fossil mold." Audio 40. What is lost in the process of replacement? Answer (B) ". . . the internal features of the organism are not preserved. . . ." Choice (A) is not correct because the shapes of fragile feathers and fur are preserved. The word minerals in Choice (C) refers to a part of the process, not to what is lost in the process. Choice (D) is not correct because the mold is left. Audio 41. Why are the layers of sedimentary rock important to the fossil record? Answer ( A )'The location of fossils in layers o f . . . sedimentary rock shows . . . the order in which they were buried, that is, their relative ages." Choice (B) is true, but it is not the reason that the layers are important to the fossil record. Choice (C) is not correct because the mineral water dissolves the organisms. Choice (D) is not correct because plants and animals buried in the same layers of rock lived at approximately the same time. Audio Conversation Narrator: Listen to part of a conversation between a student and a secretary on campus. Woman: Man: Woman: Man: Woman: Man: Woman: Man: Woman: Man:

Woman: Man: Woman: Man: Woman: Man: Woman:

Let me see if I understand this. You have completed all of your course work for graduation. Right. But you didn't apply to graduate. Right. But you want to graduate this semester. Yes, and I thought I would, automatically. I mean, 1 didn't understand that I had to do anything. Who is your advisor? I'm not sure. I have been sort of advising myself. You have? Ifs not that hard. The requirements are all spelled out in the catalog, and I have just been taking the required courses, and keeping track of all my grades. Here's my latest transcript, and as you can see, I've got all the credits I need. So you don't even have a signed program of study. Not signed, no. But I have a program of study. I used the program in the catalog. I know. But I am talking about a form that is filed by your advisor. No, I don't have that. Okay. The first thing we need to do is to assign you an advisor to go over all your transcripts and help you create a program of study. How long will that take? We'll try to get you in to see someone today. If you really have been able to take all the requirements, then there shouldn't be anything missing from the program and

554

EXPLANATORY ANSWERS AND AUDIO SCRIPTS

Man: Woman:

your advisor can sign it and also help you apply for graduation. But if you have misread the catalog or failed to take a critical course, then you may not be eligible for graduation. All I can tell you right now is that you have enough hours to graduate, but only an academic advisor can verify that you have completed the correct course work. Oh no. You mean I might not graduate? I don't know. Let's make that appointment and go from there. Now get ready to answer the questions

~udio 42. Why didn't the man apply for graduation? Answer ( D ) ". . . I thought I would, [graduate] automatically." Choice (A) is not correct because the student believes he has completed all of the course work for graduation. Choice (B) is not correct because he has enough hours to graduate. Choice (C) is true but does not explain why the man did not apply for graduation. Audio 43. How did the man select his courses? Answer ( A ) "The requirements are . . . in the catalog. . . ." Choice (B) is not correct because the man has to explain how he selected his courses. Choice (C) is not correct because the man did not have a program of study. Choice (D) is not correct because the man did not have an advisor. Audio 44. What does the woman suggest? Answer ( B ) "The first thing we need to do is to assign you an advisor. . . ." Choice (A) is not correct because the man may have taken the required courses. Choice (C) is not correct because the man referred to the requirements in the catalog. Choice (D) is not correct because the man has his latest transcript with him. Audio 45. What is the man's problem? Answer (B) ". . . if you . . . failed to take a critical course, then you may not be eligible for graduation." Choice (A) is not correct because the man is told that he has enough hours to graduate. Choice (C) is not correct because the woman will try to get the man in to see someone that day. Choice (D) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio Discussion Narrator: Listen to part of a class discussion about American English. Dr. Wilson: Because the United States is so large, and has such a diverse population, several major dialect regions have been identified. The question is whether there is one universally acceptable standard of American English. Any thoughts?

MODEL TEST 3--COMPUTER-ASSISTED TOEFL

555

Dr. Wilson? I know that the two articles we read both argued that no dialect is inherently better than any other. Isn't that right? Yes, I would say so. Since this is a linguistics class, the articles were written by linguists, and from a linguistic point of view, all dialects of a language are of equal value. Okay. And that is because all dialects can express everything that is necessary for a language community to communicate. Precisely. But, I think you are going somewhere with this argument. I am. All dialects are linguistically equal, but are they equal socially? In other words, aren't some dialects more well-respected than others? Interesting observation. In fact, your comment anticipates our assignment for the next class period when we will discuss standard dialects. For now, let me just say that, although there are several definitions of a standard dialect, the definition that we will use for our class is this: A standard dialect is the dialect that is selected as the educational model. Does that mean that the dialect of the schools is the standard? Exactly. Now I have a question. Okay. In different regions of the country, the pronunciation is very different, so the schools in each of these regions would have a different standard dialect. Isn't there a standard for the whole country? Indeed, there is. Standard English has a common grammar and vocabulary. These are the basic building blocks of a dialect. The pronunciation is an accent, not a dialect. So the accent may be regional, but as long as the grammar and vocabulary are standard, the school is teaching the standard American English dialect with, let's say, a Southern accent or a New York accent. So an accent is different from a dialect? Technically, yes. However, certain accents tend to attach themselves to particular dialects. Oh, I see. So there is a standard accent, too, then. Some linguists would say no, there isn't. But a number of sociologists would answer your question in a different way. Some accents are associated with a higher socioeconomic class and, therefore, tend to be the preferred standard accent in schools. I think I understand. There isn't anything inherently better about any dialect or accent, but the prestige of the social group that uses it makes some more desirable than others, so they are chosen for the language of the schools, and become the standard. Well said.

Laura: Dr. Wilson:

Laura: Dr. Wilson: Laura: Dr. Wilson:

Laura: Dr. Wilson: Vicki: Dr. Wilson: Vicki:

Dr. Wilson:

Vicki: Dr. Wilson: Laura: Dr. Wilson:

Laura:

Dr. Wilson: /'

Now get ready to answer the questions

Audio 46. In which class would this discussion probably take place?

Answer (C) "Since this is a linguistics class, the articles were written by linguists. . . ." Choices (A), (B), and (D) are subjects that are referred to in the discussion, but they are not the class in which the discussion takes place.

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EXPLANATORY ANSWERS AND AUDIO SCRIPTS

Audw 47. According to the discussion, what is the definition of a standard dialect? Answer (D) "A standard dialect is the dialect that is selected as the educational model." Choice (B) is not correct because all dialects of a language are of equal value. Choice (C) is true of all dialects, but it is not the definition of a standard dialect. Choice (A) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the discussion.

Audio 48. What is the linguistic perspective put forward in the articles that were assigned? Answer

(D) ". . . from a linguistic point of view, all dialects of a language are of equal value." Choice (A) is not correct because the accents taught with a standard grammar may be regional accents. Choice (B) is not correct because the school may teach a standard dialect with a regional accent. Choice (C) is .not correct because several major dialect regions have been identified.

Audw 49. Which two linguistic components are included in a dialect? Answer (A) (C) "Standard English has a common grammar and vocabulary. These [grammar and vocabulary] are the basic building blocks of a dialect." Choice (B) refers to accent, not dialect. Choice (D) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the discussion.

Audio 50. What do sociologists tell us about accents? Answer (A) "Some accents are associated with a higher socioeconomic class and, therefore, tend to be the preferred standard accent in schools." Choice (B) is not correct because the prestige of a social group makes a dialect more desirable. Choice (D) refers to the linguistic perspective of accents, not the sociological perspective. Choice (C) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the discussion.

Section 2: Structure 1. (C) Most is used before a noncount noun to express a quantity that is larger than half the amount. A singular verb follows the noncount noun. Choice (A) does not have a verb. In Choice (B), the verb is before, not after the noun. In Choice (D), the is used before most. 2. (B) An adjective is used before enough to express sufficiency. In Choice (A), goodly is ungrammatical. The adverbial form of the adjective good is well. In Choice (C), as is unnecessary and incorrect. In Choice (D), the adjective is used after, not before enough.

3. (A)Responsible for is a prepositional idiom. Responsible the should be responsible for the. 4. ( B ) A form of BE is used with the participle in passive sentences. Practice should be practiced. 5. (B) There must be agreement between pronoun and antecedent. Which should be who to refer to the antecedent Shirley Temple Black. Which refers to things. Who refers to persons. 6. (A)The can be used before a noncount noun that is followed by a qualifying phrase. Population should be the population before the qualifying phrase of the Americas.

MODEL TEST 3--COMPUTER-ASSISTED

7. (C) An adjective clause modifies a noun in the main clause. That the earliest cultures evolved modifies the way. Choice (A) is a clause marker that and a noun. Choice (B) is a verb and a noun. Choice (D) is a clause marker which and a noun. 8. (D) Comparative forms are usually followed by than. After the comparative more reasonable, as should be than. 9. (C) There introduces inverted order, but there must still be agreement between subject and verb. Has been should be have been to agree with the plural subject two major factions. 10. (A) In order to refer to occupying a place on the battlefields, lain should be used. To lay means to put in a place, and the participle is laid. To lie means to occupy a place, and the participle is lain. 11. (C) A sentence has a subject and a verb. Choice (A) is redundant because the subject pronoun it is used consecutively with the subject calculus. Choice (B) has the marker that to introduce a main clause. Choice (D) is redundant because it has a verb that replaces the main verb can reduce. 12. (B) Subject-verb order and a negative verb with either expresses negative agreement. Negative agreement with neither requires verb-subject order and an affirmative verb. In Choice (A), verb-subject order is reversed. In Choice (C), verb-subject order is reversed, and neither is used at the beginning, not at the end of the clause. In Choice (D) either, not neither, is used with verbsubject order and an affirmative verb. "Neither does Mexico" would also be correct. 13. (B) Large should be largest. Because there were more than two ethnic groups, a superlative form must be used. 14. (B) The d e t e r m i n p is used before a singular count noun. Results should be result. 15. (D) A sentence has a subject and a verb. Choice (A) does not have a verb. Choices (B) and (C) introduce a main clause subject and verb. 16. (C) The anticipatory clause it is accepted that introduces a subject and verb, the formation ...began. Choices (A), (B), and (D) are incomplete and ungrammatical. 17. (B) When the degree of one quality, the heat, is dependent upon the degree of another

TOEFL

557

quality, the humidity, two comparatives are used, each preceded by the. The worst should be the worse because it is a comparative. 18. (B) A dependent clause modifies an independent clause. Which are should be are to provide a verb for the subject statistical data, of the independent clause. 19. (A) The word order for a passive sentence is a form of BE followed by a participle. Only Choice (A) has the correct word order. Choice (B) does not have a BE form. Choice (C) has a HAVE, not a BE form. Choice (D) is a present tense verb, not BE followed by a participle. 20. (A) Despite of is a combination of despite and in spite o j Either despite or in spite of should be used. 21. (C) Subject-verb order is used in the clause after a question word connector such as how much. In Choice (A), subject-verb order is reversed. In Choice (B), the auxiliary does is unnecessary and incorrect. In Choice (D), the verb are is repetitive. "The Consumer Price Index lists how much every car is" would also be correct. 22. (A) Because it is a prepositional phrase, in a comparison as every nation should be like every nation. As functions as a conjunction. Like functions as a preposition. 23. (C) A logical conclusion about the past is expressed by must have and a participle. Choices (A), (B), and (D) are not logical because they imply that the theater will act to restore itself. 24. (A) The verb thought establishes a point of view in the past. Will should be would in order to maintain the point of view. 25. (D) Ideas in a series should be expressed by parallel structures. To plant should be planting to provide for parallelism with the -ing forms plowing and rotating.

Section 3: Reading 1. (A) "Webster's Work" is the best title because it states the main idea of the passage. Choice (B) is not correct because Webster's dictionaries represent only part of the work referred to in the passage. Choices (C) and (D) are mentioned briefly in the discussion, but are not the most important topics.

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EXPLANATORY ANSWERS AND AUDIO SCRIPTS

2. (D) In the context of this passage, idadd qUgi& could best be replaced by unbatisfactory Choices (A), (B), and (C) are not accepted definitions of the word. 3. (C) "...he discovered how inadequate the available schoolbooks were for the children of a new and independent nation .... In response to the need for truly American textbooks, Webster published A Grammatical Institute o f the English Language." Choice (A) is a result of having written A Grammatical Institute, not a reason for writing it. Choice (B) is not correct because British books were available, but not appropriate. Choice (D) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the passage. 4. (D) ". ..The American Spelling Book.. .provided him with a considerable income for the rest of his life." Choices (A), (B), and (C) are all publications by Webster, but the income afforded by each is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the passage. 5. In the context of this passage, pCipDRi7 is closest in meaning to the phrase very sue; FeXST. No other words or phrases in the bold text are close to the meaning of the word popurhr. 6. (A) In the context of this passage, ciFnsiderable is closest in meaning to Targe,. Choices (B), (C), and (D) are not accepted definitions of the word. 7. (C) "Published.. .in 1828, An American Dictionary of the English Language has become the recognized authority for usage.. .." Choice (A) refers to the date that Webster finished his study of English and began writing the dictionary. Choice (B) refers to the date that Webster began work on the dictionary. Choice (D) refers to the date that Webster finished writing the dictionary, not to the date that it was published. 8. (D) "Webster's purpose in writing it [the dictionary] was to demonstrate that the American language was developing distinct meanings, pronunciations, and spellings from those of British English." Choices (A), (B), and (C) would change the meaning of the sentence. 9. "Webster's purpose in writing it [an American dictionary] was to demonstrate that the

American language was developing distinct meanings, pronunciations, and spellings from those of British English." Quotation from sentence 4, paragraph 2. 10. (C) In the context of this passage, VTSti"n'8 is closest in meaning to diTTeX4fit. Choices (A), (B), and (D) are not accepted definitions. 1 1. (C) "He [Webster] is responsible for advancing the form color. ..instead of colour." Choices (A), (B), and (D) are British English spellings. 12. (A) Choice (A) is the author's main purpose because the passage refers to the San Andreas Fault specifically. The general information referred to in Choices (B), (C), and (D) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the passage. 13. (B) "The San Andreas Fault is a fracture at the congruence of two major plates of the Earth's crust." Choice (A) refers to the plates, not to the fracture. Choices (C) and (D) refer to the results of the movement along the fracture, not to the fault. 14. (C) In the context of this passage, ? E E s could best be replaced by Egins . Choices (A), (B), and (D) are not accepted definitions of the word. 15. (C) "Its western side always moves north in relation to its eastern side." Choices (A), (B), and (D) are not correct because the western side always moves north, not in any other direction. 16. (D) "The total net slip along the San Andreas Fault and the length of time it [the fault] has been active ..." Choices (A), (B), and (C) would change the meaning of the sentence. 17. (D) T f E i W i " i m means %-a. Choices (A), (B), and (C) are not accepted definitions of the word. 18. (C) "Tremors are not unusual along the San Andreas Fault.. .." Choice (B) is not correct because tremors are not unusual. Choices (A) and (D) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the passage. 19. (A) "Californians have long anticipated the recurrence of what they refer to as the 'Big One,' a chain reaction of destructive earthquakes. ..." Choices (B), (C), or (D) would change the meaning of the sentence. 20. In the context of this passage, ?fWFZRfAB is closest in meaning to ?I'Etmive. No other

MODEL TEST 3-COMPUTER-ASSISTED TOEFL

words or phrases in the bold text are close to the meaning of the word destiWtive. 21. "Californians have long anticipated the recurrence of what they refer to as the 'Big One,' a chain reaction of destructive earthquakes that would measure near 8 on the Richter scale, similar in intensity to those [earthquakes] that occurred in 1857 and 1906." Other choices would change the meaning of the sentence. 22. (D) ". ..the San Andreas Fault.. .runs north in an irregular line.. .." The word uneven in Choice (D) means irregular. Choice (A) is not correct because the line is irregular. Choices (B) and (C) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the passage. 23. (B) "The Structure of an Insect" is the best title because it states the main idea of the passage. Choice (C) is a secondary idea that is used to develop the main idea. Choices (A) and (D) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the passage. 24. In the context of this passage, the word is closest in meaning to subdivided. No other words or phrases in the bold text are close to the meaning of the word SO.25. (C) "Features of the mouth parts are very helpful in classifying the many kinds of insects." Choices (A), (B), and (D) are discussed, but not as a basis for classification. 26. (A) In the context of this passage, the word i i m is closest in meaning to dbfhmon. Choices (B), (C), and (D) are not accepted definitions of the word. 27. (A) "A labrum above and a labium below are similar to an upper and lower lip." Choice (B) is compared to Choice (D). Choice (C) is discussed, but not ompared to anything. 28. (B) ". ..the coiled rinking tube.. .called the proboscis.. .[is] composed.. .of modified maxillae." Choice (A) refers to food, not to the proboscis that is used in reaching it. Choices (C) and (D) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the passage. 29. (C) "In a mosquito or an aphid, mandibles and maxillae are modified to sharp stylets." The insect referred to in choice (A) has mandibles similar to jaws, not sharp stylets. The insect referred to in Choice (B) has a

b

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proboscis. The insect referred to in Choice (D) has a spongelike mouth pad. 30. (A) In the context of this passage, drill Qhfiugl could best be replaced by penetrate. Choices (B), (C), and (D) are not accepted definitions of the phrase. 31. (C) "In a housefly, the expanding labium forms a spongelike mouth pad that it [the housefly] can use to stamp over the surface of food." Choices (A), (B), and (D) would change the meaning of the sentence. 32. "An active part of the natural food cycle, insects provide nutrition for animals and devour waste products of other life forms. Although some insects, like the co*ckroach, have remained essentially unchanged for eons, most insects adapt readily to changing environmental conditions." The connection between the two sentences occurs on the paragraph level. The first sentence in the paragraph introduces the idea that insects are adaptable, and the four sentences that follow provide examples. The inserted sentence is a conclusion that reinforces the first sentence. 33. (D) Because the passage is a statement of scientific facts written from an objective point of view, it must be concluded that the purpose is to inform. Choices (A) and (B) are improbable because the passage is not written from a subjective point of view. Choice (C) is improbable because of the scientific content. 34. (D) The primary topic is the characteristics of protozoans. Choices (A), (B), and (C) are important to the discussion and provide details that support the primary topic. 35. (D) In the context of this passage, minute could best be replaced by very small. Choices (A), (B), and (C) are not accepted definitions of the word. 36. (B) "The protozoans.. .[consist] of a singlc cell of protoplasm.. .." Choices (A), (C), and (D) are not correct because the celi of a protozoan is composed of protoplasm. 37. In the context of this passage, locomotion is closest in meaning to motility. No other words or phrases in the bold text are close to the meaning of the word motility. 38. (C) Choice (C) is a restatement of the sentence referred to in the passage. Motility means the manner of movement. Choices (A), (B), and (D) would change the rneaning of the original sentence.

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EXPLANATORY ANSWERS AND AU1310 SCRIPTS

39. (C) "The Sarcodina, which include amoebae ...." Choices (A) and (B) refer to two other groups of protozoans that do not include amoebae. Choice (D) refers to the basis of classification for the three major groups of protozoans. 40. (C) "...a large nucleus that regulates growth but decomposes during reproduction.. ." Choice (A) refers to the small, not the large, nucleus. Choice (B) is not correct because the small nucleus contains the genetic code for the large nucleus. Choice (D) is not correct because the large nucleus decomposes during reproduction. 41. (A) "Protozoans are considered animals because.. .they do not live on simple organic compounds." Choices (B) and (C) refer to characteristics of some protozoans, not to a reason why they are considered animals. Choice (D) is not correct because they have only one cell, although current research is calling that into question. 42. (A) "Current research into this phenomenon along with investigations carried out with advanced microscopes may necessitate a redefinition of what constitutes a protozoan, even calling into question the basic premise that they [protozoans] have only one cell." Choices (B), (C), and (D) would change the meaning of the sentence. 43. "They are fantastically diverse, but three major groups may be identified on the basis of their motility." Quotation from sentence 2, paragraph 4. 44. (A) In the context of this passage, !fffF ? t t v is closest in meaning to m Z m a m e way. Choices (B), (C), and (D) are not accepted definitions of the word. 45. (C) Choice (A) is mentioned in sentence 3, paragraph 4. Choice (B) is mentioned in sentence 1, paragraph 1. Choice (D) is mentioned in sentence 4, paragraph 4. Protozoans consist of a single cell, although in the case of Ciliata, the cell may have a larger nucleus and a smaller nucleus.

Writing Section Question: Many people have learned a foreign language in their own country; others have learned a foreign language in the country in which it is spoken.

Which is better? Give the advantages of each and support your viewpoint.

Outline Advantages own country Teacher has similar experience-can use LI Cheaper than foreign travel Less stressful Advantages foreign country Natural speech-accent + idioms Cultural context-behaviors Opportunities My opinion-intermediate country + advanced abroad

proficiency own

d-h Advantages

Cheaper

"-""

stressful

context

1

speech

F l

Intermediateown country Advanced abroad

Example Essay There are many advantages to learning a language in your own country. In the first place, it is quite a lot cheaper than it would be to travel to the country where the language is spoken. The cost of airfare, living accom.modations, food, and tuition at a foreign school can be prohibitively high. In addition, there is less stress involved in learning in a familiar environment. Studying abroad requires that you speak the foreign language all the time to accomplish basic activities. Although it is an opportunity to use the language daily in a real setting, it can be very wearing. Finally, it is advantageous to have teachers who speak your native language because they have gone through the same stages of learning the foreign language that you are experiencing, and they know how to explain the new language by relating it to the native language.

MODEL TEST 4--COMPUTER-ASSISTED TOEFL

Nevertheless, an argument can be made for learning a language in the country in which it is spoken. Only there can you truly hear the accent and idioms of natural speech. Being surrounded by the foreign language allows you to acquire nuances that elude the classroom. It is also beneficial to learn the language within the context of the culture so that you can learn the behaviors that accompany language. For example, learning how to order in a restaurant when you are right there with native speakers will also let you see how to behave in a restaurant in the foreign country. Finally, there are often opportunities

561

that oc.cur while you are in another country. Friendships can result in invitations to spend time with native speakers in their homes, and possibilities can present themselves for work or study in the foreign country. In my opinion, the best way to learn a language is to achieve an intermediate level of proficiency in your own country and then to travel to the country where the language is spoken to make progress from the intermediate to the advanced level. By using this plan, you can benefit from the advantages of both options.

Section 1:Listening The Listening Section of the test measures the ability to understand conversations and talks in English. On the actual TOEFL exam, you will use headphones to listen to the conversations and talks. While you are listening, pictures of the speakers or other information will be presented on your computer screen. There are two parts to the Listening Section, with special directions for each part. On the day of the test, the amount of time you will have to answer all of the questions will appear on the computer screen. The time you spend listening to the test material will not be counted. The listening material and questions about it will be presented only one time. You will not be allowed to take notes or have any paper at your computer. You will both see and hear the questions before the answer choices appear. You can take as much time as you need to select an answer; however, it will be to your advantage to answer the questions as quickly as possible. You may change your answer as many times as you want before you confirm it. After you have confirmed an answer, you will not be able to return to the question. Before you begin working on the Listening Section, you will have an opportunity to adjust the volume of the sound. You may not be able -to change the volume after you have started the test.

MODEL TEST 4--COMPUTER-ASSISTED TOEFL

Nevertheless, an argument can be made for learning a language in the country in which it is spoken. Only there can you truly hear the accent and idioms of natural speech. Being surrounded by the foreign language allows you to acquire nuances that elude the classroom. It is also beneficial to learn the language within the context of the culture so that you can learn the behaviors that accompany language. For example, learning how to order in a restaurant when you are right there with native speakers will also let you see how to behave in a restaurant in the foreign country. Finally, there are often opportunities

561

that oc.cur while you are in another country. Friendships can result in invitations to spend time with native speakers in their homes, and possibilities can present themselves for work or study in the foreign country. In my opinion, the best way to learn a language is to achieve an intermediate level of proficiency in your own country and then to travel to the country where the language is spoken to make progress from the intermediate to the advanced level. By using this plan, you can benefit from the advantages of both options.

Section 1:Listening The Listening Section of the test measures the ability to understand conversations and talks in English. On the actual TOEFL exam, you will use headphones to listen to the conversations and talks. While you are listening, pictures of the speakers or other information will be presented on your computer screen. There are two parts to the Listening Section, with special directions for each part. On the day of the test, the amount of time you will have to answer all of the questions will appear on the computer screen. The time you spend listening to the test material will not be counted. The listening material and questions about it will be presented only one time. You will not be allowed to take notes or have any paper at your computer. You will both see and hear the questions before the answer choices appear. You can take as much time as you need to select an answer; however, it will be to your advantage to answer the questions as quickly as possible. You may change your answer as many times as you want before you confirm it. After you have confirmed an answer, you will not be able to return to the question. Before you begin working on the Listening Section, you will have an opportunity to adjust the volume of the sound. You may not be able -to change the volume after you have started the test.

562

EXPLANATORY ANSWERS AND AUDIO SCRIPTS

QUESTION DIRECTIONS-Part

A

In Part A of the Listening Section, you will hear short conversations between two people. In some of the conversations, each person speaks only once. In other conversations, one or both of the people speak more than once. Each conversation is followed by one question about it. Each question in this part has four answer choices. You should click on the best answer to each question. Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers.

Audw 1 . Man; Woman: Narrator:

The International Students' Association is having a party Saturday night. Can you come or do you have to work at the hospital? I wish I could. What will the woman probably do?

Answer ( C ) I wish I could is an idiomatic expression that means the speaker "would like to but is not able to do" something. Choice (A) refers to a party that the association, not the woman, will have. Choice (B) refers to what the woman would like to do, not to what she will probably do. Choice (D) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio 2. Woman: Man: Narrator:

I think that the game starts at eight. Good. We have just enough time to get there. What will the speakers probably do?

Answer (A) Since they have just enough time to get there, it must be concluded that they will leave immediately. Choices (B), (C), and (D) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audw 3. Woman: Man: Narrator:

What did you do after you lost your passport? I went to see the foreign student advisor, and he reported it to the Passport Office in Washington. What did the man do after he lost his passport?

Answer (A) The man said that he went to see the foreign student advisor. Choice (D) refers to what the advisor did, not to what the man did himself. The Passport Office is in Washington, D.C., but Choices (B) and (C) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audw 4. Man: Woman: Narrator:

I'm not sure what Dr. Tyler wants us to do.

If I were you, I'd write a rough draft and ask Dr. Tyler to look at it. What does the woman suggest the man do?

Answer ( B ) "I'd write a rough draft and ask Dr. Tyler to look at it." A "rough draft" is a preliminary version. Choice (C) is not correct because the woman says to show the draft to Dr. Tyler, not to her. Choices (A) and (D) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation.

-

MODEL TEST 4--COMPUTER-ASSISTED TOEFL

Audw 5. Man: Woman: Narrator:

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Dr. Clark is the only one teaching statistics this term. You mean we have to put up with her for another semester? What does the woman mean?

Answer (D) To put up with is an idiomatic expression that means to "tolerate." It must be concluded that the students do not like Dr. Clark. Choices (A), (B), and (C) are not paraphrases of the expression and may not be concluded from information in the conversation.

Audio 6. Woman: Man: Narrator:

Did we have an assignment for Monday? I don't have anything written down. Nothing to read in the textbook, but we have to see a movie and write a paragraph about it. What are the speakers discussing?

Answer ( C ) The references to a textbook and a movie in Choices ( B ) and (D) relate to the assignment for the class. Choice (A) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation.

Audw 7. Man: Woman: Narrator:

Excuse me. Are you Sally Harrison's sister? No, I'm not. I'm her cousin. What had the man assumed about the woman?

Answer ( B ) Since the man asks whether the woman is Sally Harrison's sister, it must be concluded that he assumed the women were sisters. Choice (A) refers to who the woman is, not to the man's assurnption. Choices (C) and (D) are not correct because the woman is Sally Harrison's cousin.

Aruiw 8. Woman: Man: Narrator:

I can't find my pen. It was right here on the desk yesterday and now it's gone. Have you seen it? Yes. I put it in the desk drawer. What is the woman's problem?

Answer ( C ) Since the woman says that she can't find her pen, it must be concluded that finding her pen is the problem. Choices (A), (B), and (D) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation.

Audw 9. Woman: Man: Narrator:

When is John coming? Well, he said he'd be here at eight-thirty, but if I know him, it will be at least nine o'clock. What does the man imply about John?

Answer ( A ) Because John agreed to arrive at eight-thirty but the man estimates that he won't arrive until nine o'clock, or one half-hour later, it must be concluded that John is usually late. Choice (B) refers to the time when John agreed to anive, not to a conclusion that the man wants us to make. Choice (C) is not correct because John had agreed to come, and the man estimates John's arrival at nine

564

EXPLANATORY ANSWERS AND AUDIO SCRIPTS

o'clock. Choice (D) is not correct because the man estimates John's arrival one half-hour after he has agreed to arrive.

Audio 10. Woman: Man: Narrator:

How is your experiment coming along? It's finished, but it didn't turn out quite like I thought it would. What does the man mean?

Ans$wer ( B ) ". . . it didn't turn out quite like I thought it would." Choice (A) is not correct because the man knows how it turned out. Choice (C) is not correct because the man says the experiment is finished. Choice (D) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio 1 1 . Woman: Man: Narrator:

Barbara sure likes to talk on the phone. If only she liked her classes as well! What does the man imply about Barbara?

Answer (A) Since the man expresses exasperation about the woman's attention to her classes, he implies that she does not put much effort in her studies. Choice (D) is true, but it is not what the man implies by his comment. Choices (B) and (C) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audw 12. Man: Woman: Man: Narrator:

What's the matter? My allergies are really bothering me. I guess I'll have to go to the doctor. If I were you, I'd try some over-the-counter medications first. They usually do the job. What does the man suggest the woman do? /-

Answer

( D ) ". . . I'd try some over-the-counter medications. . . ." Choice (A) refers to the woman's plan, not to the man's suggestion. Choice (B) refers to the idiom do the job which means to "cure." Choice (C) refers to the place to buy nonprescription (over-the-counter) medicine, not to the man's suggestion. Audw 13. Man: Woman: Narrator:

What did you decide about the scholarship? Did you fill out the application? I'm going to give it all I've got. What does the woman mean?

Answer (A) To give it all you've got is an idiomatic expression that means to "try your best." Choices (B), (C), and (D) are not paraphrases of the expression and may not be concluded from information i n the conversation. Audio 14. Woman: Man: Woman: Narrator:

Please pass your papers in. Could I have a few more minutes to finish? I'm afraid not. It's a timed test. What does the woman mean?

MODEL TEST 4--COMPUTER-ASSISTED TOEFL

565

Answer (A)Since the woman denies the man's request for a few more minutes, it must be concluded that the man must stop working on the test. Choice (B) is not correct because the man cannot have a few more minutes to finish. Choice (D) is not correct because the test is in progress, not about to start. Choice (C) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio 15. Man: Woman: Man: Narrator:

Dr. Taylor's class is supposed to be really good. The best part is I can use my roommate's book. I'm not so sure about that. I think they're using a different book this semester. What does the man imply?

Answer ( C ) Since the man thinks they are using a different book this semester, he implies that the textbook may have been changed. Choice (D) is not correct because they are discussing plans for this semester. Choices (A) and (B) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio 16. Man: Woman: Narrator:

I'm going to get Sally a bike for Christmas. Are you sure she'd like one? What does the woman imply?

Answer ( D ) Since the woman questions whether Sally would like a bike, she implies that Sally may prefer a different gift. Choice (A) refers to the man's idea, not to the woman's comment. Choices (B) and (C) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio 17. Man: Woman: Narrator:

I just can't get the answer to this problem! I've been working on it for three hours. Maybe you should get some rest and try it again later. What does the woman suggest that the man do?

Answer ( A )". . . get some rest and try it again later." Choices (B) and (D) are not correct because the woman recommends rest. Choice (C) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation.

QUESTION DIRECTIONS-Part

B

In Part B of the Listening Section, you will hear several longer conversations and talks. Each conversation or talk is followed by several questions. The conversations. talks, and questions will not be repeated. The conversations and talks are about a variety of topics. You do not need special knowledge of the topics to answer the questions correctly. Rather, you should answer each question on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in the conversations or talks. For most of the questions, you will need to click on the best of four possible answers. Some questions will have special directions. The special directions will appear in a box on the computer screen.

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EXPLANATORY ANSWERS AND AUDIO SCRIPTS

Audio Discussion Narrator: Listen to a class discussion. '

Baker: .Woman: Man: Woman: Man: Woman: Baker:

'Man:

It seems to me that the question is not whether the metric system should be introduced in the United States, but rather, how it should be introduced. I think that it should be done gradually to give everyone enough time to adjust. Yes. Perhaps we could even have two systems for a while. I mean, we could keep the English system and use metrics as an optional system. That's what they seem to be doing. When you go to the grocery store, look at the labels on the cans and packages. They are marked in both ounces and grams. Right. I've noticed that too. And the weather reporters on radio and TV give the temperature readings in both degrees Fahrenheit and degrees Celsius now. Some road signs have the distances marked in both miles and kilometers, especially on the interstate highways. What do you think, Professor Baker? Well, I agree that a gradual adoption is better for those of us who have already been exposed to the English system of measurement. But I would favor teaching only metrics in the elementary schools. I see your point. It might be confusing to introduce two systems at the same time. Now get ready to answer the questions

Audio 18. What is the topic under discussion? Answer

( B ) ". . . the question is not whether the metric system should be introduced in the United States, but rather, how it should be introduced." Choice (A) is not correct because the question is not whether the metric system should be introduced. Choices (C) and (D) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the discussion. Audio 19. What changes in measurement in the United States have the students observed? Answer ( C )"They [cans and packages] are marked in both ounces and grams. . . . And the weather reporters on radio and TV give the temperature readings in both degrees Fahrenheit and degrees Celsius now. . . . Some road signs have the distances marked in both miles and kilometers. . . . " Choice (A) is not correct because the temperature readings are in both degrees Fahrenheit and degrees Celsius. Choice (B) is not correct because the road signs have distances marked in both miles and kilometers. Choice (D) is not correct because cans and packages are marked in both ounces and grams. Audio 20. What was Professor Baker's opinion? Answer (D) "I [Professor Baker] agree that a gradual adoption is better for those of us who have already been exposed to the English system of measurement. But I would favor teaching only metrics in the elementary schools." Choice (A) refers to the woman's suggestion, not to Professor Baker's opinion. The opinions expressed in Choices (B) and (C) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the discussion.

MODEL TEST 4--COMPUTER-ASSISTED TOEFL

567

Audio 21. Which word best describes Professor Baker's attitude toward his students? Answer (D) Because Professor Baker invites a free exchange of ideas and does not criticize his students, it must be concluded that he is cooperative. The words in Choices (A), (B), and (C) do not describe Professor Baker's manner in the conversation. Audio Lecture Narrator: Listen to part of a lecture in a science class. Since the National Aeronautics and Space Administration was established in 1961, NASA has been engaged in an extensive research effort, which, in cooperation with private industry, has transferred technology to the international marketplace. Hundreds of everyday products can be traced back to the space mission, including cordless electrical tools, airtight food packaging, water purification systems, and even scratch coating for eyeglasses. In addition, many advances in medical technology can be traced back to NASA laboratories. First used to detect flaws in spacecraft, ultrasound is now standard equipment in almost every hospital for diagnosis and assessment of injuries and disease; equipment first used by NASA to transmit images from space to Earth is used to assist in cardiac imaging, and lasers first used to test satellites are now used in surgical procedures. Under-the-skin implants for the continuous infusion of drugs, and small pacemakers to regulate the heart were originally designed to monitor the physical condition of astronauts in space. Finally, with the help of images that were obtained during space missions, and NASA technology, archaeologists have been able to explore the Earth. Cities lost under desert sands have been located and rediscovered, and the sea floor has been mapped using photographs from outer space.

1

Now get ready to answer the questions

I

Audio 22. What is the talk mainly about? Answer ( D ) ". . . an extensive research effort, which, in cooperation with private industry, has transferred technology to the international marketplace." Choices (A), (B), and (C) are secondary themes used to develop the main theme of the talk. Audw 23. Which of the advances listed are NOT mentioned as part of the technology developed for space missions? Answer ( A ) "Hundreds of everyday products can be traced back to the space mission, including cordless electric tools, airtight food packaging . . . ultrasound. . . ." Choice (A) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the talk. Audio 24. According to the speaker, why did NASA develop medical equipment?

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EXPLANATORY ANSWERS AND AUDIO SCRIPTS

Answer ( D ) "First used to detect flaws in spacecraft, ultrasound is now standard equipment in almost every hospital. . . . " Choice (A) refers to implants and pacemakers, not to ultrasound. Choices (B) and (C) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio 25. Why does the speaker mention archaeology? Answer ( B ) ". . . archaeologists have been able to explore the Earth. . . . cities.. .have been located. . . . and the sea floor has been mapped using photographs from outer space." Choices (A), (C), and (D) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio Conversation Narrator: Listen to part of a conversation between a student and a professor in the professor's office. Beverly:

Oh, Dr. Williams. I expected to leave you a note since this is not one of your office hours. But I would really appreciate a few minutes of your time. I'm Beverly Jackson, and I'm in your two o'clock political science class:\ Dr. Williams: Yes, Beverly. I remember you. You always sit in the front. I do. I really like the class, and I want to be able to see all the slides and videos. Beverly: Dr. Williams: Good, so what can I do for you? I'm hoping you can help me. I have a family emergency, and I am needed at home Beverly: for at least a week. That means I'll have to miss your Wednesday and Friday class, but I'm sure that I can be back by class on Monday. Dr. Williams: Oh. Beverly: I know that attendance is part of the evaluation, and I want to get a good grade in the class. Is there any way you could give me an excused absence or something so it won't bring my grade down? I would be happy to do extra work to make up the time. Dr. Williams: Oh, don't worry about that, Beverly. You never miss class, and I'm sure you have a very good reason to be absent this time. I'll be glad to give you an excused absence for Wednesday and Friday. Is there anything else I can do? Beverly: Not really. I have already arranged to get the notes from Gloria Hayes. She and I always study together. Dr. Williams: Fine. Well, when you get back, and you read Gloria's notes, let me know if there is anything you don't understand. Sometimes it's hard to understand someone else's notes. If you need some clarification, I can meet with you for a few minutes before class on Monday. Beverly: That's very nice of you, Dr. Williams. I'll call to set up an appointment, if I need to. But I think I'll be okay with the notes. Thanks for the excused absence. Dr. Williams: You're very welcome. And I hope that everything goes well for you at home. Beverly: Thank you, Dr. Williams. I really appreciate it. Now get ready to answer the questions

Audio 26. Why did the student want to see the professor?

MODEL TEST 4-COMPUTER-ASSISTED

TOEFL

569

Answer (B) "Is there any way you could give me an excused absence. . . ." The word note in Choice (A) refers to the notes that Beverly plans to borrow from her friend Gloria, not to a note she has for the professor. Choice (C) is not correct because she never misses class. Choice (D) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio 27. What is the student's problem? Answer ( D ) "I have a family emergency, and I am needed at home for at least a week." Choice (A) is not correct because Beverly sits in front to see better. Choice (B) refers to the professor's concern, not to the student's problem. Choice (C) is not correct because the professor says she never misses class. Audio 28. What does the professor offer to do? Answer (B) "If you need some clarification, I can meet with you for a few minutes before class on Monday." Choice (A) is not correct because the woman has already arranged to borrow notes from her friend, Gloria. Choices (C) and (D) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio 29. What is the professor's attitude in this conversation? Answer ( B ) "You're very welcome. And I hope that everything goes well for you at home." Choice (A) is not correct because the professor spends so much time talking with Beverly. Choice (C) describes the woman's attitude, not that of the professor. The word conjksed in Choice (D) refers to the professor's comment about how difficult it can be to understand someone else's notes, not to her attitude. Audio Talk Narrator: Listen to part of a talk in a history class. The first permanent settlement was made in San Francisco in 1776, when a Spanish military post was established on the end of that peninsula. During the same year, some Franciscan Fathers founded the Mission San Francisco de Asis on a hill above the post. A trail was cleared from the military post to the mission, and about halfway between the two, a station was established for travelers called Yerba Buena, which means "good herbs." For thirteen years, the village had fewer than one hundred inhabitants. But in 1848, with the discovery of gold, the population grew to ten thousand. That same year, the name was changed from Yerba Buena to San Francisco. By 1862, telegraph communications linked San Francisco with eastern cities, and by 1869, the first transcontinental railroad connected the Pacific coast with the Atlantic seaboard. Today San Francisco has a population of almost three million. It is the financial center of the West, and serves as the terminus for trans-Pacific steamship lines and air traffic. The port of San Francisco, which is almost eighteen miles long, handles between five and six million tons of cargo annually. Jf you travel to San Francisco, you will see the most identifiable landmarki the Golden Gate Bridge. The bridge, which is more than one mile long, spans the harbor from San Francisco to Marin County and the Redwood Highway. It was completed in 1937 at a cost of thirty-two million dollars and is still one of the largest suspension bridges in the world.

570

EXPLANATORY ANSWERS AND AUDIO SCRIPTS

Now get ready to answer the questions

Audio 30. What is the main purpose of this talk? Answer ( C )The speaker discusses the history, economy, and landmarks of San Francisco. Choices (A), (B), and ,(D) are secondary themes used to support the main purpose of the talk, an orientation to the City of San Francisco. Audio 3 1. According to the speaker, what was the settlement called before it was renamed San Francisco? Answer (D) ". . . the name was changed from Yerba Buena to San Francisco." Choice (A) refers to the name of the bridge, not a settlement. Choice (B) refers to a mission established before Yerba Buena was settled. Choice (C) refers to a military post established before the settlement of Yerba Buena. L.

Audio 32. According to the speaker, what happened in 1848? Answer ( A )". . . in 1848, with the discovery of gold, the population grew to ten thousand." Choice (B) refers to what happened in 1869, not 1848. Choice (C) refers to what happened in 1937. Choice (D) refers to what happened in 1862. Audio 33. How long is the Golden Gate Bridge? Answer ( C ) "The bridge, which is more than one mile long, spans the harbor from San Francisco to Marin County. . . ." Choice (A) refers to the length of the port of San Francisco, not to the length of the Golden Gate Bridge. Choice (B) refers to the altitude of the city. The number in Choice (D) refers to the number of tons of cargo handled at the port of San Francisco every year. Audio Talk Narrator: Listen to a talk by an English professor. Today we will discuss Transcendentalism, which is a philosophical and literary movement that developed in New England in the early nineteenth century. Transcendentalism began with the formation in 1836 of the Transcendental Club in Boston, Massachusetts, by a group of artists and writers. This group advanced a reaction against the rigid Puritanism of the period, especially insofar as it emphasized society at the expense of the individual. One of the most distinguished members of the club was Ralph Waldo Emerson, who served as editor of the literary magazine Dial.His writing stressed the importance of the individual. In one of his best-known essays, "Self-Reliance," he appealed to intuition as a source of ethics, asserting that people should be the judge of their own actions, without the rigid restrictions of society. From 1841 to 1843, Emerson entertained in his home the naturalist and author Henry David Thoreau, who also became a member of the Transcendental Club. Probably more than any other member, he demonstrated by his lifestyle the ideas that the group advanced. He preferred to go to jail rather than to pay taxes to the federal government for a war of which he did not approve.

MODEL TEST 4--COMPUTER-ASSISTED TOEFL

571

Upon leaving Emerson's home, Thoreau built a small cabin along the shores of Walden Pond near Concord, Massachusetts, where he lived alone for two years. Devoting himself to the study of nature and to writing, he published an account of his experiences in Walden, a book that is generally acknowledged as the most original and sincere contribution to literature by the Transcendentalists.

I

Now get ready to answer the questions

(

Audio 34. What does the lecturer mainly discuss? Answer ( A ) "Today we will discuss Transcendentalism.. .." Choices (B), (C), and (D)are secondary themes that are used to develop the main theme of the lecture. Audio 35. During which century did this literary movement develop? Answer ( C ) "Today we will discuss Transcendentalism, which is a philosophical and literary movement that developed in New England in the early nineteenth century." Choices (A), (B), and (D) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information jn the talk. Audio 36. According to the lecturer, what did the Puritans do? Answer ( C ) "This group [the Transcendental Club] advanced a reaction against the rigid Puritanism of the period, especially insofar as it emphasized society at the expense of the individual." Choices (A) and (D) refer to the Transcendental Club, not to the Puritans. Choice (B) is not correct because the Transcendental Club reacted against the Puritans. Audio 37. What is Walden? Answer ( D ) "Thoreau built a small cabin along the shores of Walden Pond . . . he published an account of his experiences in Walden. . . ." Choices (A), (B), and (C) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the talk. Audio Conversation Narrator: Listen to part of a conversation between a student and a librarian. Woman: Man:

Woman: Man:

Woman:

Do you have any experience working in a library? No, not as an employee. But I am working toward my doctorate at the University, and I have spent a great deal of time doing my own research in the library. I'm finishing my dissertation now. So you are familiar with the electronic search equipment? Yes, I am. I used several databases for my review of the literature in my dissertation, and I know how to use most of the search equipment that you have here, because this is where I am doing most of my own research. Good. Can you think of anything else that would qualify you for the job?

572

EXPLANATORY ANSWERS AND AUDIO SCRIPTS

Man:

Woman:

Man:

Woman: Man: Woman: Man:

Yes. I like helping students. My undergraduate degree was in education, and I was a high school teacher for twelve years before I came back to school. The ad says that you want someone to show new students how to do computer searches for their term papers, and I think that my teaching experience would be very useful. Good, good. But what about the hours? If you are working on your dissertation, will you be able to work? This job requires twenty hours of your time per week, and the hours are not regular. You see, in addition to helping students one-on-one, we make appointments for faculty to bring their classes to the library for orientation before they make their first term paper assignments. That sounds very interesting. I feel that I can handle a job now. I have most of my own research finished, and I'm writing my dissertation. I plan to do that after work and on my days off. So you aren't taking any classes now? No. That's another advantage I have. I can schedule my time around the appointments. And if you are the successful candidate, when could you start? Right away! Now get ready to answer the questions

\

Audio 38. What is the purpose of this conversation? Answer ( D ) "Do you have any experience working in a library?" Choice (A) is not correct because the man does his own research in the library and knows how to use most of the search equipment. The phrase teaching position in Choice (B) refers to a job that the man had before he came back to school, not to a position that he is applying for now. The phrase library orientation in Choice (C) refers to one of the responsibilities of the position that the man is applying for, not to training that he is receiving now. Audio 39. Who is the man? Answer (C) "I am working toward my doctorate at the University. . . ." Choice (A) is not correct because he was a teacher before he came back to school, not now. Choice (B) is not correct because he has never been an employee in a library. The word computer in Choice (D) refers to the type of library searches that the students need to do for their term papers, not to the man's background. Audio 40. What does the man need to do when he is not working? Answer (C) "I'm writing my dissertation. I plan to do that [write my dissertation] after work and on my days off." Choice (B) is not correct because he has most of his own research finished. Choice (D) is not correct because he is not taking any classes now. Choice (A) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation.

MODEL TEST 4--COMPUTER-ASSISTED TOEFL

573

Audio 4 1. When would the man be available? Answer /' ( D ) ". . . when could you start? Right away!" Choices (A) and (B) are not correct because he will complete his dissertation after work and on his days off, and he will graduate after the dissertation is complete. Choice (C) refers to when he will write his dissertation, not to when he will be available for work.

Audw Lecture Narrator:

Listen to part of a lecture on solar heating.

In general, solar heating requires a solar collector, a water or air distribution system, and a storage system. Most of the time, a solar collector is mounted on the roof of a building at a somewhat steep angle, positioned with a southern exposure. In the hot water system that I am going to show you, the collector is a glass plate with another plate under it, and an air space between the two, through which water can be pumped. I think it will make more sense when you see the model, so let's look at it now.

solar collector

+ supply air 1 I

Notice that water that has been heated by the sun is pumped in closely positioned tubes through the space between the plates. The hot water is then pumped to a storage tank, and warmed air is circulated to the other side of the building with a fan. You will also see a backup heater in this system, usually a conventional furnace, because only about 20 to 30 percent of the solar energy can actually be used in this design. The supply air moves across the space to be heated, and enters the return air exchanger where it rises and, with exposure to the sun, begins heating again to raise the temperature of the water in the tubes below. So, the process begins again. Of course, one of the problems with solar heat is the intermittent nature of solar radiation as an energy source. Especially in climates where the sun does not shine regularly, it just isn't a feasible option without large, and often complex, storage systems. However, scientists are now working on a project to place solar modules in orbit around the Earth, where energy generated by the sun could be converted to microwaves and beamed to antennas for conversion to electric power. It is estimated that such a system, although costly and somewhat cumbersome, could

574

EXPLANATORY ANSWERS AND AUDIO SCRIPTS

potentially generate as much power as five large nuclear power plants. The principle would be basically the same as that of the much simpler model that I showed you. A solar collector, an air distribution center, and a storage system would be required. So if you understand the model here, you can understand even the most complex solar heating unit. Now get ready to answer the questions

Audio 42. Which two requirements are considered when mounting a solar collector on a roof? Ans'wer ( A ) ( C ) ". . . a solar collector is mounted . . . at a . . . steep angle . . . with a southern exposure." Choices (B) and (D) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the lecture. Audio 43. Identify the fan in the solar heating system.

Answer (B) Choice ( A ) is a solar collector. Choice (C) is a backup heater. Cho-. collector.

(D) is the space under the

Audio 44. What problem does the professor point out? Answer ( B ) ". . . one of the problems with solar heat is the intermittent nature of solar radiation as an energy source. Especially in climates where the sun does not shine regularly. . . ." Choices (A), (C), and (D) are not mentioned as problems and may not be concluded from information in the lecture. Audio 45. Why does the professor mention the project to place solar modules in orbit? Answer ( C ) "The principle [of the solar orbit system] would be basically the same as that of the much simpler model that I showed you." Choice (A) is not correct because the system is costly. Choice (B) is not correct because he identifies scientists as those involved in working on the project and does not include himself. Choice (D) is true, but it is not the reason that the professor mentioned the project. Audio Conversation Narrator: Listen to part of a conversation between a student and a secretary in the Tutoring Center. Man: Woman: Man: Woman: Man: Woman: Man:

Excuse me, is this where I request a tutor? Yes, it is. Which course do you need help in? English. English language or literature? Composition really. I seem to have a hard time figuring out how to write my essays. Oh. Well, we have some excellent tutors for that. My grades are really good in math and science, but I can't figure out how to organize my writing.

MODEL TEST 4--COMPUTER-ASSISTED TOEFL

Woman: Man:

575

When would you be able to come in for tutoring? Do you have classes in the afternoon? Just on Monday, Wednesday, and Friday. I only have morning classes on Tuesday iand Thursday. Good. Some of our best tutors for English work in the afternoon. I could set you up with Janine on Tuesdays and Thursdays at four o' clock if you want. Is the tutoring session an hour long? Yes. You would be finishing up about five. Okay. I could do that. And, uh, how much will that cost? Oh, I thought you knew. This is a free service for our students. It is? No, I wasn't aware of that. Actually, a lot of students who receive tutoring come back and serve as tutors once they get squared away themselves. That's really a great system. Janine needed some tutoring in math a few years ago, as I recall, and now she helps us in English composition and French. So, should I just come back on Tuesday at four? Yes. I have your name down. Just check in with me when you get here, and I'll take you over to Janine's table. And, bring your books for the class that you need help in, along with a syllabus, your class notes, and anything that might help your tutor to understand the course requirements. Thank you so much. I'll see you Tuesday, then. -

Woman: Man: Woman: Man: Woman: Man: Woman: Man: Woman: Man: Woman:

Man:

I

Now get ready to answer the questions

1

Audio 46. What is the purpose of this conversation? Answer

( B ) ". . . is this where I request a tutor?' Choice (A) is not correct because the man asks for a tutor, not for a position. Choice (D) is not correct because the woman is helping the man to arrange for tutoring. Choice (C) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation.

Audio 47. For which course does the man want a tutor? Answer (D) "Which course do you need help in? English . . . composition. . . ." The word literature in Choice (A) refers to a question that the woman asked, not to the course that the man needs help in. Choice (B) refers to the course that Janine was tutored for, not to the course for which the man needs a tutor. Choice (C) refers to the other course that Janine tutors in, not to the course that the man will receive tutoring in. Audio 48. How much will the tutoring cost? Answer (D) "This is a free service. free service.

. . ." Choices (A), (B), and (C) are not correct because the tutoring is a

(C) ". . . should I just come back on Tuesday at four? Yes." Choices (A) and (B) refer to the times for the man's classes. Choice (D) refers to one of the times for which the man scheduled tutoring but not the first session. \\

Audio 50. What should the man bring to his tutoring session? Answer ( B ) ". . . bring your books . . . a syllabus, your class notes. . . ." Choice (A) is not correct because the service is free. The word composition in Choice (D) refers to the course in which the man will receive tutoring, not to an essay that he should bring to his tutoring session. Choice (C) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation.

Section 2: Structure 1. (D) A dependent clause modifies an independent clause. Choice (A) has two clause markers, which and that. Choice (B) is a verb followed by a noun and a clause marker. Choice (C) does not have a clause marker. 2. (B) A passive infinitive is used to express purpose. Choice (A) is a noun. Choice (C) is an -ing form. Choice ( D ) is a present verb. 3. (C) Most adverbs of manner are formed by adding -1y to adjectives. Rapid should be rapidly to qualify the manner in which automatic data processing has grown. 4. (D) As well as should be and, which is used in correlation with both. 5. (B) A cardinal number is used after a noun. The is used with an ordinal number before a noun. In Choices (A) and (C), an ordinal number is used after, not before a noun. Choice (D) is incomplete because it does not include the before the ordinal number. 6. (A) Repetition of the subject by a subject pronoun is redundant. They should be deleted. 7. (B) As soon as is an idiom that introduces a limit of time. The phrase as soon as is followed by a noun and a simple present verb. Choice (A) is a modal and a verb word, not a simple present verb. Choice (D) is a noun. Choice (C) uses a present but not a simple present form.

8. (C) Because dates require ordinal numbers, twelve should be twelfth. 9. ( B )Influence should be influential. Influence is a noun. Influential is an adjective. 10. (C) Weathering is the subject of the verb is. Choices ( A )and (B) are redundant and indirect. Choice (D) is an -ing form, not a verb. 11. (D) Such . . . as introduces the example shrimps and clams, which must refer to a plural antecedent. Sea creature should be sea creatures. 12. (C) Ideas in a series should be expressed by parallel structures. Encouraging should be to encourage to provide for parallelism with the infinitive to discourage. 13. ( B ) Combination should be combine. Combination is a noun. Combine is a verb. 14. (D) The verb to consider requires an -ing form in the complement. Choice (A) is an infinitive, not an -ing form. Choice ( B ) is a participle. Choice (C) is a verb word. 15. (C) Presumable should be presumably. Presumable is an adjective. Presumably is an adverb. 16. ( A )The verb reported establishes a point of view in the past. Discovers should be discovered in order to maintain the point of view. 17. (D) Because the verb refuse requires an infinitive in the complement, giving should be to give. 18. (C) Object pronouns are used after prepositions such as by. Choice (A) is a reflexive pronoun, not an object pronoun. Choices (B)

MODEL TEST 4--COMPUTER-ASSISTED TOEFL

and (D) are possessive pronouns. "The work was done by hersely' without the repetitive word alone would also be correct. 19. (C) There must be agreement between subject and verb. Has should be have to agree with the plural subject the few cities. 20. (D) Ideas in a series should be expressed by parallel structures. Increasing should be to increase to provide for parallelism with the infinitive to enrich. 21. @) An appositive does not require connectors or an additional subject. Choices (A) and (C) include connecting conjunctions. Choice (B) is an anticipatory it clause, not an appositive. 22. (A) Would have and a participle in the result requires had and a participle in the condition. Because would not have evolved is used in the result, did notfilter out should be had not filtered out in the condition. 23. (B) Consecutive order must be maintained, along with parallel structure. 24. (D) Ideas in a series should be expressed by parallel structures. Swimming should be swim to provide for parallelism with the verb words walk, watch, and fish. 25. (D) There must be agreement between pronoun and antecedent. Its should be their to agree with the plural antecedent books.

Section 3: Reading 1. (A) The other choices are secondary ideas that are used to develop the main idea, "precipitation." Choices (B), (C), and (D) provide details and examples. 2. (C) "Precipitation [is] commonly referred to as rainfall." Choices (A), (B), and (D) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the passage. 3. (B) "Precipitation, commonly referred to as rainfall, is a measure of the quantity of water in the form of either rain, hail, or snow." Choice (A) is incomplete because it does not include hail and snow. Humidity referred to in Choices (C) and (D) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the passage. 4. (A) "The average annual precipitation over the whole of the United States is thirty-six inches." Choice (B) refers to the formula for computing precipitation, not to the annual rainfall over the United States. Choice (C)

577

refers to the amount of rain recorded in New York State, not in the United States. Choice (D) refers to the total annual precipitation recorded in New York State. 5. (B) "A general formula for computing the precipitation of snowfall is that ten inches of snow is equal to one inch of precipitation." Forty inches of snow divided by 10 inches per one inch of precipitation is four inches, or one-third foot. Choices (A), (C), and (D) may not be computed on the basis of the formula in the passage. 6. (C) In the context of this passage, pR3fimiis closest in meaning to Wamess to. Choices (A), (B), and (D) are not accepted definitions of the phrase. 7. "Most of the precipitation in the United States is brought originally by prevailing winds from the Pacific Ocean, the Gulf of Mexico, the Atlantic Ocean, and the Great Lakes." Quotation from sentence 2, paragraph 2. 8. (D) "...the Pacific Coast receives more annual precipitation than the Atlantic Coast." Choices (A), (B), and (C) refer to the prevailing winds, not to the highest annual precipitation. 9. (B) Choice (A) is mentioned in sentence 5, paragraph 1. Choices (C) and (D) are mentioned in sentence 1, paragraph 2. Choice (B) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the passage. 10. (A) In the context of this passage, %llfdtanl could best be replaced by mndamentally. Choices (B), (C), and (D) are not accepted definitions of the word. 11. (B) "East of the Rocky Mountains, the annual precipitation decreases substantially from that [precipitation] west of the Rocky Mountains." Choices (A), (C), and (D) would change the meaning of the sentence. 12. (D) Choices (A), (B), and (C) are important to the discussion, and provide details that support the main topic, "women's suffrage." 13. (C) In the context of this passage, Bah most Choices (A), (B), nearly means to and (D) are not accepted definitions of the word. 14. "They were fighting against a belief that voting should be tied to land ownership, and because land was owned by men, and in some cases by their widows, only those who

m.

578

EXPLANATORY ANSWERS AND AUDIO SCRIPTS

held the greatest stake in government, that is the male landowners, were considered worthy of the vote." Quotation from sentence 5, paragraph 1. 15. (A) In the context of this passage, .pmkiiy is closest in meaning to a6We iiII. Choices (B), (C), and (D) are not accepted definitions of the word. 16. In the context of this passage, Be3dr is closest in meaning to 3SitipiWe. NO other words or phrases in the bold text are close to the meaning of the word improve. 17. (D) "When the Civil War ended ...the Fifteenth Amendment.. .granted.. .suffrage to blacks.. .." Suffrage means the right to vote. Choice (B) is not correct because the bill was presented to Congress in 1878, not irnrnediately after the Civil War. Choice (C) refers to the fact that the eastern states resisted the women's suffrage bill, not the end of the Civil War. Choice (A) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the passage. 18. (D) Suffrage means the right to vote; the exercise of such a right. Choice (A) is a definition of the word suffering, not suffrage. Choices (B) and (C) are related to the word suffrage, but they are not accepted definitions of it. 19. (A) "A women's suffrage bill had been presented to every Congress since 1878 but i t [the bill] continually failed to pass until 1920, when the Nineteenth Amendment granted women the right to vote." Choices (B), (C), and (D) would change the meaning of the sentence. 20. (C) ". ..the Nineteenth Amendment granted women the right to vote." Choice (A) refers to the Fifteenth, not the Nineteenth Amendment. Choice (B) refers to the Fourteenth Amendment. Choice (D) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the passage. 21. (D) ". ..1920 when the Nineteenth Amendment granted women the right to vote." Choice (A) refers to the date when the Civil War ended. Choice (B) refers to the date when the Fifteenth Amendment was adopted granting blacks, not women, the right to vote. Choice (C) refers to the date when the bill to grant women the right to vote was pre-

sented to Congress, not to the date that it was passed and became law. 22. (B) The other choices are secondary topics that are used to develop the primary topic, "characteristics and varieties of the Acacia." Choices (A), (C), and (D) are important details and examples. 23. In the context of this\ passage, valuev is closest in meaning to Wzd. No other words or phrases in the bold text are close to the meaning of the word p m . 24. (C) "Only about a dozen of the three hundred Australian varieties grow well in the southern United States." Choice (A) refers to the number of species identified, not to the number that grow well in the United States. Choice (B) refers to the number of species that grow well in Australia, not in the southem United States. Choice (D) refers to the number of species that have flowers, not to the total number of species that grow well in the southern United States. is 25. (A) In the context of this passage, closest in meaning to the phrase -@bw weXl. Choices (B), (C), and (D) are not accepted definitions of the word. 26. (D) "Most acacia imports are low spreading trees, but of these [trees], only three flower." Choices (A), (B), and (C) would change the meaning of the sentence. 27. (C) "The Silver Wattle, although very similar to the Bailey Acacia, grows twice as high." Choice (A) refers to the Sydney Golden Wattle, not to the Silver Wattle. Choices ( B ) and (D) refer to the Black Acacia. 28. ( A )In the context of this passage, fldt most nearly means gWf6d€h . Choices (B), (C), and (D) are not accepted definitions of the word. 29. (B) In the context of this passage, could best be replaced by Ha%5ifate. Choices (A), (C), and (D) are not accepted definitions of the word. 30. (D) "...the Black Acacia or Blackwood, has dark green leaves and unobtrusive blossoms." The species referred to in Choices (A), (B), and (C) have fragrant clusters of yellow flowers. 3 1. (B) ". . .the Black Acacia is valuable for its dark wood which is used in making cabinets and furniture." Choices (A), (C), and (D) are

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MODEL TEST 4--COMPUTER-ASSISTED TOEFL

not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the p-age. 32. (C) "...the pale yellow blosioms appear in August in Australia." Choice (A) refers to the month that the Acacia blooms in the United States, not in Australia. Choices (B) and (D) refer to the reversal of seasons in the northern and southern hemispheres, but not to the blossoming of the Acacia. 33. "Some acacias are popular in landscaping because of their graceful shapes, lacey foliage, and fragrant blossoms. Other Acacia varieties are valued for the sticky resin, called gum Arabic or gum acacia, used widely in medicines, foods, and perfumes, for the dark dense wood prized for making pianos, or for the bark, rich in tannin, a dark, acidic substance used to cure the hides of animals, transforming them into leather." The connection between the two sentences occurs in the first words-Some and Other, which determine consecutive order. 34. (A) "A History of New York City" is the best title because it states the main idea of the passage. Choices (C) and (D) are details used to develop the main idea. Choice (B) is not specific enough. 35. (C) "Peter Minuit.. .negotiated with Canarsee chiefs for the purchase of Manhattan Island for merchandise ...." Choices (A) and (B) refer to the value of the merchandise, not to what the Native Americans received. Choice (D) refers to where the Dutch settlements were located. 36. (B) ". ..Dutch settlements in North America known as New Amsterdam.. .." Choice (C) refers to the location of the land that was purchased from the Native Americans. Choices (A) and (D) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the passage. 37. (A) Choice (A) is a restatement of the sentence in the passage. Since offers were extended throughout Europe, it must be assumed that other Europeans were given opportunities to immigrate. 38. (C) In the context of this passage, T f Z Y E f f BaiiS could best be replaced by diverse. Choices (A), (B), and (D) are not accepted definitions of the word.

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39. (C) "...offers, generous by the standards of the era, were extended throughout Europe. Consequently, the settlement became the most heterogeneous of the North American colonies." Choice (A) is not correct because it was New Amsterdam, not the Dutch West India Company, that the English acquired. Choices (B) and (D) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the passage. 40. "Among the multilingual settlers was a large group of English colonists from Connecticut and Massachusetts who supported the English King's claim to all of New Netherlands set out in a charter that gave the territory to his [the English King's] brother James, Duke of York." Other choices would change the meaning of the sentence. 41. (A) In the context of this passage, P " o is~ closest ~ in meaning to powerful. Choices (B), (C), and (D) are not accepted definitions of the word. 42. "When the English acquired the island, the village of New Amsterdam was renamed New York in honor of the Duke." Quotation from sentence 1, paragraph 4. 43. (B) "After the war, it [New York] was selected as the first capital of the United States." Choices (A), (C), and (D) would change the meaning of the sentence. 44. (B) "After the war, it [New York] was selected as the first capital of the United States." Choice (A) refers to the former name for New York, which had already been changed when it became the first capital. Choices (C) and (D) refer to cities that became the capital after New York. 45. (D) "Three centuries after his initial trade ...Minuit's tiny investment was worth more than seven billion dollars." Choice (A) refers to the date that the Dutch purchased Manhattan Island from the Native Americans. Choice (B) refers to the date one century after the purchase. Choice (C) refers to the date three decades after the purchase.

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EXPLANATORY ANSWERS AND AUDIO SCRIPTS

Writing Section Question: In your opinion, what is the best way to choose a marriage partner? Use specific reasons and examples why you think this approach is best.

Outline Old tradition-arranged marriage Family + intermediary Modem-romantic Media

love

Both Parents arrange meetings-wisdom Mutual attraction-romantic ideal

Map Marriage partner Old tradition

Modern concept

Arranged marriage

Romantic love

Family

Media

Both

Parents arrange meeting

Mutual attraction

Example Essay In my view, the best way to choose a marriage partner is to combine the old tradition of arranged marriage with the more modem concept

of a love match. In my country, it is our custom to become engaged to a partner who has been selected by an intermediary. Usually, the families of the couple have made it known that they are interested in a union, and the intermediary makes the arrangements and negotiates the financial agreement that preydes the marriage ceremony. I agree with this way to choose a marriage partner because the marriages that have been arranged in my culture, for the most part, have been successful. Traditionally, this type of arrangement has been good because the families that agree to the marriage have maintained a long friendship, they know the parties involved very well, and they have the maturity and wisdom to select compatible partners. In addition, the families have a vested interest in the success of the marriage and tend to be very supportive of the young couple, both financially and emotionally. Recently, however, young people have been influenced by the modern idea of romantic love that is presented in the media, and they want to participate in choosing their partners. Physical attraction and the meeting of minds is often unable to be anticipated, but it needs to be considered. Although it is expected that love will grow as the couple shares the experiences of marriage, a strong bond from the beginning is preferable. Therefore, I advocate using both the traditional and the more modem ways of choosing a marriage partner. When I get married, I will ask my parents to arrange meetings with several women who come from families with whom my parents associate. I am sure that there will be a mutual attraction between one of the women and me. In this way, I will have the benefit of my family's wisdom without sacrificing my own romantic ideal.

MODEL TEST 5--COMPUTER-ASSISTED TOEFL

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Section 1:Listening The Listening Section of the test measures the ability to understand conversations and talks in English. On the actual TOEFL exam, you will use headphones to listen to the conversations and talks. While you are listening, pictures of the speakers or other information will be presented on your computer screen. There are two parts to the Listening Section, with special directions for each part. On the day of the test, the amount of time you will have to answer all of the questions will appear on the computer screen. The time you spend listening to the test material will not be counted. The listening material and questions about it will be presented only one time. You will not be allowed to take notes or have any paper at your computer. You will both see and hear the questions before the answer choices appear. You can take as much time as you need to select an answer; however, it will be to your advantage to answer the questions as quickly as possible. You may change your answer as many times as you want before you confirm it. After you have confirmed an answer, you will not be able to return to the question. Before you begin working on the Listening Section, you will have an opportunity to adjust the volume of the sound. You may not be able to change the volume after you have started the test.

QUESTION DIRECTIONS-Part

A

In Part A of the Listening Section, you will hear short conversations between two people. In some of the conversations, each person speaks only once. In other conversations, one or both of the people speak more than once. Each conversation is followed by one question about it. Each question in this part has four answer choices. You should click on the best answer to each question. Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers.

Audio 1 . Woman: Man: Narrator:

I'm out of typing paper. Will you lend me some? I don't have any either, but I'll be glad to get you some when I go to the bookstore. What is the man going to do?

Answer (D) The man offers to get some paper at the bookstore. Choice (A) is not correct because the woman, not the man, wants to borrow some typing paper. Choice (B) is not correct because the man doesn't have any paper either. Choice (C) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio 2. Man: Woman: Narrator:

Excuse me, Miss. Could you please tell me how to get to the University City Bank? Sure. Go straight for two blocks, then turn left and walk three more blocks until you get to the drugstore. It's right across the street. What can be inferred about the man?

Answer

( B ) ". . . walk three more blocks. . . ." Since the woman gives directions for walking, it must be concluded that the man is not driving a car. Choice (C) is not correct because the man calls the woman Miss. Choices (A) and (D) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation.

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EXPLANATORY ANSWERS AND AUDIO SCRIPTS

Audw 3. Woman: Man: Narrator:

Are you still going to summer school at the university near your parent's house? That plan kind of fell through because there weren't enough courses. What does the man imply?

Answer ( C ) To fall through is an idiomatic expression that means "not to hap not correct because he planned to go to summer school. Choices (A) may mot be concluded from information in the conversation.

as planned." Choice (D) is (B) are not mentioned and

Audio 4. Man: Woman:

Narrator:

How much is the rent for the apartment? It's six hundred and fifty dollars a month unfurnished or eight hundred dollars a month furnished. Utilities are seventy-five dollars extra, not including the telephone. It's expensive, but it's worth it because it's within walking distance from the university. What are the speakers discussing?

Answer ( B ) Choices (A), (C), and (D) are mentioned in reference to the main topic of discussion, the apartment. Audw 5. Man: Woman: Man: Woman: Narrator:

Dr. Taylor must have really liked your paper. You were about the only one who got an A. I know. So why are you so down? He never seems to call on me in class. What does the woman imply?

Answer (B) Since the woman mentions that Dr. Taylor does not interact with her in class despite her good grades, she implies that she is not sure how Dr. Taylor feels. Choices (C) and (D) are not correct because she was the only one who received an A on her paper. Choice (A) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio 6. Woman:

Do you know anyone who would like to participate in a psychology experiment?

It pays ten dollars an hour. Man: Woman: Man: Narrator:

Have you asked Sandy? No. Do you think she would do it? I think she would. What does the man suggest that the woman do?

Answer ( C ) Since the man inquires whether she has asked Sandy, he implies that she should ask her. Choice (A) refers to the payment for participation, not to the man's suggestion. Choice (B) refers to the woman's request, not to the man's suggestion. Choice (D) refers to the experiment in psychology, not to a person that the woman should see. Audio 7. Woman: Man: Narmtor:

Didn't you go to the study group meeting last night either? No. I had a slight headache. What can be inferred about the study group meeting?

/

MODEL TEST 5--COMPUTER-ASSISTED TOEFL

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Answer (A)Because either means that the speaker is including herself in her statement, it must be concluded that the woman did not go to the meeting. The man said that he did not go because of a headache. Choice (B) is not correct because of the use of the word either in the woman's question. Choice (C) is not correct because of the man's negative response to the question of whether he went to the meeting. Choice (D) is not correct because of both the use of the word either and the man's negative response. Audio 8 . Woman: Man: Narrator:

I have a card, but now I need a farewell gift for my advisor. How about a nice pen? What does the man mean?

Answer (B) "How about [buying] a nice pen?'Choice (C) refers to the card that the woman has already purchased, not to the man's idea. Choice (D) is not correct because the man offers a suggestion for a gift. Choice (A) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio 9. Man: Woman: Narrator:

Are you going to move out of the dorm next semester? I just can't seem to make up my mind. What does the woman mean?

Answer ( D ) To not make up one's mind is an idiomatic expression that means to "be undecided." Choices (A) and (C) are not correct because she is still considering both alternatives. Choice (B) is not correct because she has a choice. Audio 10. Man: Woman: Narrator:

I signed the contract. Do you really think you can work and go to school full time? What does the woman imply?

Answer ( A ) Since the woman asks whether the man can work and go to school, she implies that he may be taking on too much. Choices (B), (C), and (D) are not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation. Audio 11. Woman: Man: Narrator:

I owe everyone in my family a letter, but I really don't have time to sit down and write them and it's too expensive to call. Why don't you just buy some postcards? What does the man suggest the woman do?

Answer (C>Since the man suggests that the woman buy postcards, it must be concluded that she should send postcards to her family. Choice (B) is not correct because she does not have time to write a letter. Choice (A) refers to the man's family, not to the woman's family. Choice (D) is not mentioned and may not be concluded from information in the conversation.

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Audio Man: Woman: Man: Woman:

Narrator:

Are you going to stay here for graduate school? I don't think so. Have you heard from any schools yet? Yes, I was accepted at Kansas State, the University of Oklahoma, and the University of Nebraska, but I'm going